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Rainbow [258]
3 years ago
7

PLEASE HELP ASAP! Will give BRAINLIEST! Please answer correctly! No guessing!

Business
1 answer:
Drupady [299]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

I would say A:Only certain goals can be understood in monetary terms.

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Luthan Company uses a plantwide predetermined overhead rate of $23.20 per direct labor-hour. This predetermined rate was based o
Phantasy [73]

Answer:

Manufacturing overhead cost applied=  $280,720

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Plantwide predetermined overhead rate of $23.20 per direct labor-hour.

Estimated $278,400 of total manufacturing overhead cost.

Estimated activity level of 12,000 direct labor-hours.

The company incurred actual total manufacturing overhead costs of $269,000 and 12,100 total direct labor-hours during the period.

Manufacturing overhead cost applied= actual direct labor hours* predetermined overhead rate

Manufacturing overhead cost applied= 12100* 23.20= $280,720

6 0
3 years ago
Knowledge Check 01 On February 13, a jewelry store sells an engagement ring with a sales price of $10,000 to a nervous young man
Simora [160]

Answer:

Cash Dr 10975  

     To Sales  $10,000  

     To  Sales Tax Payable $975 ($10,000 × 9.75%)

(Being the cash is recorded)

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below;

Cash Dr 10975  

     To Sales  $10,000  

     To  Sales Tax Payable $975 ($10,000 × 9.75%)

(Being the cash is recorded)

For recording this we debited the cash as it increased the assets and credited the sales and sales tax payable as it also increased the revenue and liabilities

4 0
3 years ago
The current price of the common stock of Internet Enterprises is $100. Over the course of a year, the stock's price will either
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Current value of this newly issued option on Internet Enterprises= $25

Explanation:

Risk free rate for 6 month or period 1= (1000-909.09)/909.09=10%

Risk free rate for 1 year= (1000-826.45)/826.45=21%

Hence, risk free rate for period 2= (1+21%)/(1+10%)-1=10%

Now, Risk free rate factor for period 1 (R1)=1+10%=1.1

Risk Free rate factor for period 2 (R2)=1+10%=1.1

Upward price factor for a period(u)=(1+100%)^(1/2)=1.414

Downward price factor for a period(d)=(1-50%)^(1/2)=0.707

Probability of upward price= (R-d)/(u-d)=(1.1-0.707)/(1.414-0.707)=0.55

Probability of downward price= 1-0.55=0.45

After period 1: Upward price=100*1.414=141.4 with probability 55%

Downward price =100*0.707=70.7 with probability 45%

After period 2:

Upward Price will be =141.4*1.414=200 with probability= 55%*55%=30.25%

Downward price will be=70.7*0.707=50 with probability=45%*45%=20.25%

Mid price will be = 141.4*0.707 or 70.7*1.414=100 with probability =2*45%*55%=49.5%

Now, the highest price the stock can go is $200 with probability 30.25% and it was issued at $100

Hence, expected payoff of the option=30.25%*(200-100)=$30.25

So, current value of the newly issued option= 30.25/(1+21%)=$25

4 0
4 years ago
Name two new developments in the way Americans work.
professor190 [17]
Economic development<span> is the sustained, concerted actions of policy makers and cummities </span><span>that promote the standerds of livng </span><span>and ecnominc health</span><span>of a specific area. </span><span>
</span>
6 0
3 years ago
What is the amount you can withdraw at the end of 20 years if you make $1,500 monthly deposit at a nominal annual rate of 6% com
musickatia [10]

Answer:

$693,061.34 (±6,500)

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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