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lara31 [8.8K]
3 years ago
8

Given the conditional statement ~p -> q which statement is logically equivalent?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
icang [17]3 years ago
4 0

Any implication is logically equivalent to its contrapositive. In other words,

¬<em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em>   ⇔   ¬<em>q</em> ⇒ <em>p</em>

(¬ means the same thing as ~, "not")

To prove this: recall that

<em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em>   ⇔   ¬<em>p</em> ∨ <em>q</em>

This is because <em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em> is true if <em>p</em> is false, or both <em>p</em> and <em>q</em> are true, i.e.

<em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em>   ⇔   ¬<em>p</em> ∨ (<em>p</em> ∧ <em>q</em>)

Disjunction (∨ or "or") distributes over conjunction (∧ or "and"), so that

<em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em>   ⇔   (¬<em>p</em> ∨ <em>p</em>) ∧ (¬<em>p</em> ∨ <em>q</em>)

but ¬<em>p</em> ∨ <em>p</em> is always true, or a tautology, so we're just left with ¬<em>p</em> ∨ <em>q</em>.

Then

¬<em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em>   ⇔   <em>p</em> ∨ <em>q</em>

…   ⇔   <em>q</em> ∨ <em>p</em>

…   ⇔   ¬(¬<em>q</em>) ∨ <em>p</em>

…   ⇔   ¬<em>q</em> ⇒ <em>p</em>

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