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Nookie1986 [14]
3 years ago
5

How can I make these a single fraction?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Serga [27]3 years ago
6 0

in the like term you can add directly and make it single fraction and in unlike term you have to take LCM of denominator .

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HELPP ASAP!!step by step anwserssw
Natasha_Volkova [10]
X - The total cost
3 persons
Below $120 p/p
Then
120 * 3 = 360
X < 360/3
5 0
2 years ago
Plz show ur work! Ty if u do. Will give brainilest!
Sati [7]

Answer:

12/32 divide by 4 and get 3/8 you can’t simplify any further after that

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
On Halloween, a man presents a child with a bowl containing eight different pieces of candy. He tells her that she may have thre
likoan [24]

Answer:

56 choices

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that we'll have to solve this problem with a permutation or a combination, but which one do we use? The answer is a combination because the order in which the child picks the candy <u><em>does not</em></u> matter.

To further demonstrate this, imagine I have 4 pieces of candy labeled A, B, C, and D. I could choose A, then C, then B or I could choose C, then B, then A, but in the end, I still have the same pieces, regardless of what order I pick them in. I hope that helps to understand why this problem will be solved with a combination.

Anyways, back to the solving! Remember that the combination formula is

_nC_r=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}, where n is the number of objects in the sample (the number of objects you choose from) and r is the number of objects that are to be chosen.

In this case, n=8 and r=3. Substituting these values into the formula gives us:

_8C_3=\frac{8!}{3!5!}

= \frac{8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1}{3*2*1*5*4*3*2*1} (Expand the factorials)

=\frac{8*7*6}{3*2*1} (Cancel out 5*4*3*2*1)

=\frac{8*7*6}{6} (Evaluate denominator)

=8*7 (Cancel out 6)

=56

Therefore, the child has \bf56 different ways to pick the candies. Hope this helps!

3 0
3 years ago
A flipped coin landing heads up and rolling a 5 or 6 on a number cube
Vladimir [108]
The probability would be 1/6 if the number cube is six-sided and the coin is normal.

First, we will find the probability of the landing on heads with the coin.This would be 1/2 because you have two sides that it could land on and one side you want it to land on.

Next, we will find the probability of getting a five or six with a number cube. This would be 2/6 or 1/3 because there are 6 sides it could land on and two with one of the numbers you want. 

Finally, you multiply the two probabilities. 1/3 times 1/2 equals 1/6.

Hope this helps! Have a great day!
8 0
3 years ago
PLZ HELP ASAP
Nitella [24]

Answer:

The answer is C.

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
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