Numerator
<span><span>cos<span>(<span>π/2</span>−x)</span></span>=<span>cos<span>(<span>π/2</span>)</span></span><span>cosx</span>+<span>sin<span>(<span>π/2</span>)</span></span><span>sinx</span></span>
now <span><span>cos<span>(<span>π/2</span>)</span></span>=0 and <span>sin<span>(<span>π/2</span>)</span></span>=1</span>
simplifies to : 0 + sinx = sinx
Denominator
<span><span>sin<span>(<span>π/2</span>−x)</span></span>=<span>sin<span>(<span>π/2</span>)</span></span><span>cosx</span>+<span>cos<span>(<span>π/2</span>)</span></span><span>sinx</span></span>
simplifies to : cosx + 0 = cosx
<span>⇒<span><span>cos<span>(<span>π/2</span>−x)</span></span><span>sin<span>(<span>π/2</span>−x)</span></span></span>=<span><span>sinx/</span><span>cosx</span></span>=<span>tan<span>x</span></span></span>
It took 3 days to complete a work by 10 people.
<h3>What is Efficiency?</h3>
The efficiency is the output of the work which we divide by the work input and then express it in a percentage form.
Here, Efficiency of 1 person to complete a piece of work in 30 days is 1/30.
The number of days to complete the work = n days
Number of person to complete the work = p.
Now, according to question
Number of days to complete the work by 10 people = 30 / 10
= 3 days.
Thus, it took 3 days to complete a work by 10 people.
Learn more about Efficiency from:
brainly.com/question/13828557
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Answer:
Option (d) is correct.
The given polynomial 
is a prime polynomial.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given :
We have to factorize it completely.
Since , factorization is the process of reducing a given polynomial into a lower degree polynomial by taking common factors out into the simplest form.
Consider the given polynomial
Since the given polynomial do not have any term common in both terms .
So we cannot factorized it further.
So, the given polynomial is a prime polynomial.
Thus, Option (d) is correct.
