Answer: Opportunity cost
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that Joe sold gold coins for $1000 that he bought a year ago for $1000 and he said that at least he didn't lose any money on my financial investment.
We are further told that his economist friend points out that in effect he did lose money, because he could have received a 3 percent return on the $1000 if he had bought a bank certificate of deposit instead of the coins.
This is a concept of opportunity cost. Opportunity cost is what one forgoes when one makes a different choice. The opportunity cost in this case is the bank certificate of deposit.
Answer:
TIE 2.47
Explanation:
Our first step will be calculate the interest expense
350,000 debt outstanding * 12% rate = 42,000
Next, we need the EBIT which means Earnings Before Interest and Taxes.
Using the net profit margin of 3% we can get the net income
This means 3% of sales become net income
We are going to apply this to Morris sales to get the net income
Now this include the interest and taxes, we need to get the Earning before those two concepts so:
Now we got everything needed for the TIE
129,500/52,500 = 2.47
Answer:
The correct answer here is Restitution.
Explanation:
The remedy which is available here to Simon is restitution ( termed as Restitutionary damages), according to this remedy a injured party ( Simon in this case ) would be compensated for the losses or damage that he has suffered because of the actions of the defendant ( Racicky in this case ). So here Racicky has to submit any gain that he has received by causing damage to the Simon.
Here expectation can't be the answer because Racicky is now bankrupt and specific performance can't be the answer because Racicky is not the owner of the land , he hasn't bought it because he has gone bankrupt.
Answer: b. 36 years under scenario A, versus 18 years under scenario B.
Explanation:
The Rule of 72 is a rule in finance that will allows for the calculation of how long it will take for an investment to double given its interest rate.
The time is calculated by dividing 72 by the interest rate in question.
Scenario A
= 72/2
= 36 years.
Scenario B
= 72/4
= 18 years.
Answer:
C. Balloon loan
Explanation:
Balloon loans are loans that can not fully amortize over its term. They are loans that are paid of with a large single final payments. A lump sum amount. It involves the borrower paying back a lower monthly percentage in exchange for paying a large one time payments at the end of the loan term. Either fixed or flexible interest rate structure can be used on it. Ballon loans are usually reserved for conditions when a business has to wait until a specific period before receiving payment from a client for its product or services.