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Vlad1618 [11]
3 years ago
12

You rarely find a t……..j……. on the motorway

English
1 answer:
Zinaida [17]3 years ago
3 0

Lol so true but why is this a question

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Wich statemant best explains the relationship between the two facts? iready chocolate
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Present participle would be 'clipping'. Perfect participle would be 'having clipped'. Therefore, the only option left is 'past participle'. 
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why did shakespheres noble characters speak in iambic pentameter while commoners spoke mainly in blank verse or prose
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1. First, Shakespeare wrote his plays in blank verse featuring iambic pentameter because that was the style of the day. Think of it as a way for an author to show off--and it really is quite impressive if one thinks about it. There are very few authors who can create characters and plots as rich as Shakespeare's and write their lines in a consistent meter. 2. Secondly (I think that this might be what you are asking), when Shakespeare's characters speak in verse (iambic pentameter), they are usually the noble (aristocratic) characters, and their speech represents their high culture and position in society. If you simply look at one of Shakespeare's plays, you can often tell when the commoners are speaking because their lines will go from margin to margin (this is true, too, of nobles who are acting like commoners--whether they're involved in evil schemes, losing their minds, or are drunk!). In contrast, Shakespeare's other characters' lines should sound and look different to you--they should sound "sing-songy" and should look like poetry with uneven lengths. A good example of this is from Othello. When Iago is speaking to his peers or to those in position of authority over them, his speech is in verse, but when he is plotting and talking to Roderigo (especially at the play's beginning), his lines are not in iambic pentameter--this represents the bawdy nature of his speech and, in truth, the baseness of his character.
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The excerpts which best sets the groundwork for his argument from precedent is; Choice B;

  • Pitcairn, the uninhabited island settled in 1790 by the HMS Bounty mutineers, had actually been populated by the Polynesians 800 years earlier

<h3>Diamonds article: Argument</h3>

Diamond's op-ed simply offers an analysis of why civilizations collapse. It is an essay obviously intended to make readers ask, "Does our civilization have what it takes to survive?"

Front the Op-ed;

"In this fresh year, with the United States seemingly at the height of its power and at the start of a new presidential term, Americans are increasingly concerned and divided about where we are going. How long can America remain ascendant?

Read more on argument from precedent;

brainly.com/question/877736

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