1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
abruzzese [7]
3 years ago
10

How did France,Spain,and England settle America differently?

History
1 answer:
cricket20 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

France and Spain, for instance, were governed by autocratic sovereigns whose rule was absolute; their colonists went to America as servants of the Crown. In addition, unlike France and Spain, England encouraged immigration from other nations, thus boosting its colonial population.

Explanation:

<em>I hope this helps         :)</em>

You might be interested in
Was there a seperation of church and state in the massachusetts bay colony?
mariarad [96]

Answer:

The Puritans in Massachusetts Bay believed in a separation of church and state, but not a separa- tion of the state from God. The Congregational Church had no for- mal authority in the government. Ministers were not permitted to hold any government office. ... Puritan lawmaking touched all aspects of life.

5 0
3 years ago
Which group brings impeachment charges against government officials?
Alla [95]

Answer:

the house of representatives brings the charges. senate holds the trial.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why were the British unable to cut off new England from the middle colonies
Naddik [55]
They couldn't because of the Saratoga Campaign.

5 0
3 years ago
Was there a particular moment between 1763 and 1783 when colonists became “americans” instead of “Englishmen” or was it a proces
kvv77 [185]

Between the years of 1763 and 1783 the people living in the American colonies started to became ''Americans'' instead of ''Englishman''. The reason for that were the economic actions taken by the British Parliament. The British were financially exhausted and in lot of debt because of the wars with France and Spain. In order to cover their debts, they implemented the Sugar Act and the Stamp Act, which were basically meaning that the colonies needed to pay higher taxes for exports and imports, and they were also limited from where they can import things because of the taxes. That started to create a lot of tensions because the people were losing lot of profit. Little by little the tensions started to turn into revolts, and eventually into a revolution, and a war for independence, as the colonists no more wanted to be part of the English Crown but instead started to declare themselves as separate entities, as Americans.

7 0
3 years ago
I NEED HELP FAST
Delvig [45]

Answer:

The Western Roman Empire had a loss of ships and food scarcity in the year 476 CE.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • What was the earliest religious motivation for American colonization?
    13·2 answers
  • 6. Identifying Central Issues What principles are central to democracies?
    7·1 answer
  • How might the conditions on the ship have been conected to the diseases that were so common among slaves
    11·2 answers
  • What did the Ottoman Turks seek to gain by conquering Byzantine territory?
    5·1 answer
  • Between 1836 and 1914, over 30 million Europeans immigrated to the United States. Where did most of these immigrants settle? A)
    12·1 answer
  • How did victory in the Persian Wars strengthen Athens?
    6·1 answer
  • What happened after Stalin became paranoid
    9·1 answer
  • What's the difference between Stone Age and New Age? What are some new technology during the Stone Age and New Age? How is the t
    14·1 answer
  • Hey! I am running a LGBTQIA+ History Kahoot! Here is the link. If you want me to add anything to it comment! The first 2 winners
    6·1 answer
  • What happens to James hamlet when the fugitive slave acts are passed. 
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!