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3 years ago

PLEASE HELP! HELP! HELP!

Mathematics

2 answers:

tatiyna3 years ago

8 0

Answer D (characters) d d okay cool nice wow 2i29wiw

aksik [14]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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you roll a single die number 1 to 6 twice. what is the probability of rolling a 6 the first time and an odd number the second?

Ulleksa [173]

If you were to roll a 6 the first time it be 1/6 and for rolling an odd number 3/6

5 0

4 years ago

A system has a continuous load requirement of 80 MW. Find the expected load loss and the probability of load loss (loss of load

MariettaO [177]

Answer:

Expected load loss = 1.35

P (Load Loss) = 0.127

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of failure is: q = 0.015

The probability of success is: p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.015 = 0.985

The number of units the generation system is composed of is, n = 9.

The capacity of each unit is 10 MW.

Let X = number of units that failed or are unavailable.

The random variable X follows a Binomial distribution with parameters n and q.

The probability function is:

$P (X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x}$ ; x =0, 1, 2, 3...

The expected number of failures is:

$E(X)=nq=9\times0.015=0.135$

Then the expected load loss is:

$E (Load\ Loss)=10\times E(X)=10\times 0.135=1.35$

Thus, the expected load loss is 1.35.

The load loss will be when at least one unit fails.

The probability that at least one unit fails is:

P (X ≥ 1) = 1 - P (X < 1) = 1 - P (X = 0)

$=1-[{9\choose 0}(0.015)^{0}(1-0.015)^{9-0}]\\=1-0.8728\\=0.12718\\\approx0.127$

Thus, the probability of load loss is 0.127.

5 0

3 years ago

What are the answers to both questions?

Sidana [21]

Answer:

1. p=54

2. -2n - 14

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Combine multiplied terms into a single fraction

Multiply by 1

Subtract 7 from both sides of the equation

2. not quiet sure so sorry if you get it wrong

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

1. Which is a linear equation? Pls help asap

Rama09 [41]

X2 = y

i believe :)
hope this helped!

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Freddie is at chess practice waiting on his opponent's next move. He notices that the 4-inch-long minute hand is rotating around

aksik [14]

Part 1. Imagine a clock without the hour hand, When clock strikes 3:35, the minute hand is at 7. When it strikes 3:55, the minute hand is in 11. Each gap between two adjacent digits in the clock measures 30°. This is because a revolution divided by 12 is 360/12 = 30. Then, the angle between the minute hands in the picture is equal to 4(30°) = 120°. Know that π radians is equal to 180°. Converting 120° to radians,

120°(π radians/180°) = (2/3)π or 2.09 radians

Part 2. For this part, we determine the arc length intercepted by the angle 120° because this is the total distance travelled by the tip of the minute hand.

S = rθ, where θ is the angle in radians and r is the radius of the circle represented by the minute hand.
S = (4)(2.09)
S = 8.36 inches

Hence, the tip of the minute hand travelled a total distance of 8.36 inches.

4 0

3 years ago