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pochemuha
2 years ago
5

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2 answers:
bulgar [2K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

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IgorLugansk [536]2 years ago
5 0

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Lance Brothers Enterprises acquired $720,000 of 3% bonds, dated July 1, on July 1, 2016, as a long-term investment. Management h
stiv31 [10]

Answer:

A) July 1, 2016, 3% bonds are acquired as long term investment.

Dr Investment in 3% bonds 720,000

    Cr Cash 600,000

    Cr Discount on investment in 3% bonds 120,000

B) December 31, 2016, interest earned from investment in 3% bonds.

Dr Cash 10,800

Dr Discount on investment in 3% bonds 1,200

    Cr Interest revenue 12,000

Explanation:

the bonds' face value is $720,000 but since the company paid only $600,000 for them, it means that it bought them at a discount price. Therefore, the discount, $720,000 - $600,000 = $120,000, must be recorded, and later amortized.

To calculate the amount of interest revenue that will be amortized as discount on investment:

(bonds' market price x market interest rate x 1/2) - (bonds' face value x coupon rate x 1/2) = ($600,000 x 4% x 1/2) - ($720,000 x 3% x 1/2) = $12,000 - $10,800 = $1,200

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A good leader should have a positive outlook. Please select the best answer from the choices provided OT F​
docker41 [41]

Answer:

true

Explanation:

if your leader dont have postivie outlook it will spread to the others

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Tamarisk Corporation purchased a truck by issuing an $118,400, 4-year, zero-interest-bearing note to Equinox Inc. The market rat
lianna [129]

Answer:

Dr. Truck                $80,869

CR. Note Payable $80,869

Explanation:

Note issued is a liability instrument. It is a promise of payment f principal amount and interest after a specific period of time. Zero interst interest bearing not does not offer any interest payment but it is issued at a discounted price . Present value of Note payable is the value that should be recognised as a cost of the truck.

Now calculate the present value of the Note.

PV of Zero coupon bond = FV / ( 1 + r )^n

Where

FV = FV maturity value of the note = $118,400

r = Interest rate = 10%

n=  numbers of period = 4 years

Placing Values in the formula

PV of Zero coupon bond = $118,400 / ( 1 + 10% )^4

PV of Zero coupon bond = $80,869

5 0
3 years ago
Tiffany purchased a $10,000, 13-week Treasury bill that is paying 2.25%. What is the effective rate on this T-bill?
Licemer1 [7]
 the answer i got is 2.70
3 0
3 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
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