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Ann [662]
3 years ago
13

When an asset is sold, a gain occurs when the?

Business
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]3 years ago
4 0
<span>sale price exceeds the book value of the asset sold </span>
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Plush Corporation purchased 100 percent of Common Corporation’s common stock on January 1, 20X3, and paid $450,000. The fair val
Oxana [17]

Answer:

Please refer the detail answer in the memo below

Explanation:

Date: 24 January 20XX

Subject: Review of Impairment of Goodwill

From: External Auditors

To: Chief Accountant, Plush Corporation

Upon review of the investment made by your company in Common Corporation, we believe that there are possible indications of the impairment of the goodwill initially recognized in the books upon acquisition.

At the time of Acquisition:

Consideration = $450,000

Fair Value of Net Assets = $430,000

Goodwill = $450,000 - $430,000 = $20,000

The new guidance issued by FASB, requires only a one-step quantitative impairment test, whereby a goodwill impairment loss will be measured as the excess of a reporting unit’s carrying amount over its fair value.

However, if we follow the previous guidance of FASB, we have to test the impairment with the following three steps:

Step 1: We will compare the carrying amount of the net assets with the Fair value of Reporting Unit, and if the carrying amount exceeds the fair value, we will record the impairment.

Step 1: We will compute, implied value of goodwill by comparing the fair value of the reporting unit with the fair value of the identifiable net assets, if FV of net assets are higher, then there is no impairment, otherwise we will jump to Step 3.

Step 3: If the calculated implied value of the goodwill is lower than the actual goodwill at acquisition, than the difference is the impairment loss, however in case the implied value of the goodwill is higher than the actual goodwill at acquisition, no impairment shall be recorded.

Apparently, since the fair value of Common had increased to $485,000, there is no need to recognize the impairment loss on goodwill; however we believe that the estimated fair value of Common is less than the $430,000 and therefore impairment should be recorded.

7 0
3 years ago
In which stage would you typically expect to see large negative Financing Cash Flows?
kvasek [131]

Answer:

a. Startup

Explanation:

  • The negative cash flows are when the firms are having more cash outflow than the cash inflow and spending of the company is more than the earning and thus experiencing a negative cash flow.
  • This is a situation is found in the growth phase as they demand more money to generated and spend money to fuel growth and acquire the new customers and that may be set up by the distribution channels.
  • Thus startup of the company or industry can show more negative cash flows.
4 0
3 years ago
Monkey See. Monkey Take and<br> Humans vs Chimps
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

Monkey do

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
"Budget deficits should be avoided, even if the economy is below potential, because they reduce saving and lead to lower growth.
bixtya [17]

Answer:

the long-run framework directs one to avoid deficits; in the short-run framework deficits are useful if the economy is significantly below potential.

Explanation:

"Budget deficits should be avoided, even if the economy is below potential, because they reduce saving and lead to lower growth." This policy directive follow the long-run framework directs one to avoid deficits; in the short-run framework deficits are useful if the economy is significantly below potential.

<u>The reason is that in the short-run, deficits offer economic solutions by being an antidote to recessions, hence they could be a strategy of recession management in the short run</u>

<u>However in the long-run, deficits are not advisable as they could lead to debts because the major way to manage such deficits is by external borrowings. </u>

<u />

5 0
3 years ago
Pelzer Printing Inc. has bonds outstanding with 10 years left to maturity. The bonds have a 9% annual coupon rate and were issue
miv72 [106K]

Answer:

The answer is 9.85%

Explanation:

The number of periods N = 9years(10 years minus 1 year ago)

Yield to Maturity (I/Y) = ?

Present value of the bond (PV) = $950.70

Future value of the bond(FV) = $1,000

Annual payment (PMT) = $90 (9% x $1,000)

Using a financial calculator to solve the problem ( BA II plus Texas instruments):

Yield to Maturity (I/Y) = 9.85%

8 0
4 years ago
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