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Nastasia [14]
3 years ago
14

Choate International plans to issue $15 million in 10-year bonds. They believe they can afford to pay $1,150,000 in interest to

bondholders each year.
Which annual interest rate should they use for their bonds? The current market interest rate is 7.75% for similar bonds.

A) 7.75% B) 7.65% C) 8.1% D) 6.5%
Business
1 answer:
Luda [366]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Correct option is (B)

Explanation:

Given:

Bond issue amount = $15,000,000

Market interest rate = 7.75%

Investors cannot pay interest more than $1,150,000

Choate cannot choose 6.5%, the bond will become less attractive to investors as it indicates that the bond is selling at discount.

If 7.75% interest is given that is the market interest, then interest amount would be $1,162,500 (15,000,000 × 0.0775)

Choate cannot afford to pay more than $1,150,000, so it cannot offer bonds at 7.75% or 8.1%.

The only option left is 7.65%. Interest amount would be $1,147,500 (15,000,000 × 0.0765) which is less than what the company can afford. Also, it is just marginally lesser than market interest rate of 7.75%, so bonds would still be attractive.

Choate should select 7.65%.

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the best possible answer is keep the marginal costs below marginal revenue.

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3 years ago
Compound interest means that interest is calculated on:.
ira [324]

Answer: initial principal

Explanation:

Compound interest (or compounding interest) is interest calculated on the initial principal, which also includes all of the accumulated interest from previous periods on a deposit or loan.

6 0
2 years ago
Exercise 11-1 Compute the Return on Investment (ROI) [LO11-1] Alyeska Services Company, a division of a major oil company, provi
vaieri [72.5K]

Answer:

1. Margin = 0.32 or 32%

2. Turnover = $19,000,000  or Operating Asset Turnover = 0.52 or 52%

3. Return on Investment = 0.17 or 17%

Explanation:

Firstly, list out the parameters we were given:

Sales = $19,000,000, Net Operating Income = $6,100,000,

Average Operating Assets = $36,500,000

1. Operating Margin = Net Operating Income / Sales

Operating Margin = 6,100,000 ÷ 19,000,000 = 0.32

Operating Margin = <u>0.32</u> (to 2 decimal places)

Operating Margin = <u>32%</u>

<u />

2. Turnover refers to sales or revenue made during a particular period. In which case turnover is <u>$19,000,000</u>

However, if the turnover referred to is the Operating Asset Turnover, that is calculated below:

Operating Asset Turnover = Sales / Average Operating Assets

Operating Asset Turnover = 19,000,000 ÷ 36,500,000

Operating Asset Turnover = <u>0.52</u> (to 2 decimal places)

Operating Asset Turnover = <u>52%</u>

<u />

3. Return on Investment (ROI) = Net Operating Income / Average Operating Assets

Return on Investment (ROI) = 6,100,000 ÷ 36,500,000

Return on Investment (ROI) = <u>0.17</u> (to 2 decimal places)

Return on Investment (ROI) = <u>17%</u>

8 0
3 years ago
Using the allowance method, is bad debt expense recognized in
mezya [45]

Using the allowance method, is bad debt expense recognized in the period in which sales related to the uncollectible account are made.

One of the most typical types of bad debt is credit card debt. Lenders issue credit cards, which let you make purchases on credit. These credit cards frequently have exorbitant interest rates that can soon become out of control.

Bad debt costs are typically listed on the income statement as a sales and general administrative expenditure. Accounts receivable on the balance sheet are reduced when bad debts are recognized, but firms still have the right to collect money if the situation changes.

Learn more about bad debts here

brainly.com/question/24871617

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3 0
1 year ago
A machine costing $450,000 with a four-year life and an estimated $30,000 salvage value is installed by Lux Company on January 1
Tasya [4]

Answer:

$112,500

Explanation:

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life)  

Depreciation expense in year 1 = 2/4 x $450,000 = $225,000

Book value at the beginning of year 2 =  $450,000 - $225,000 =  $225,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = 2/4 x $225,000 = $112,500

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3 years ago
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