Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
2^0 is less than or equal to 1!, because 1<= 1
if 2^n <= (n+1)!, we wish to show that 2^(n+1) <= (n+2)!, since
(n+2)! = (n+1)! * (n+2), and (n+1)!>= 2^n, then we want to prove that n+2<=2, which is always true for n>=0
Answer:
0.98732
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that :
Mean = 10 minutes
Variance = 2 minutes
For less than equal 40 jobs
Mean (m) = 40 * 10 = 400 minutes
Variance = 2 * 40 = 80 minutes
Standard deviation (s) = √variance = √80
Converting hours to minutes
X = 60 * 7 = 420 minutes
P(X≤ 420) :
Z = (x - m) / s
P(X≤ 420) :
Z = (420 - 400) / √80
Z = 20 / √80 = 20 / 8.9442 = 2.236
P(Z ≤ 2.236) = 0.98732
1. - B) <span>the diameter is 16
2. - C.) </span><span>diameter is 8
3. - D.) </span><span>a circle's circumference divided by its diameter.
4. - C.) </span><span>the radius.
5. - A.) 9.42
6. - D.) </span><span>16 inches or less.
7. - A.) </span><span>π
8. - B.) </span><span>2 (3.14) π
9. - A.) 8
10. - B.) Perimeter
Hope this helps!</span>
Step-by-step explanation:
= (15 − 3) ÷ (2 + 1) × (8 − 6)
BODMAS rule
= (12) ÷ (3) × (2)
= (12/3) × (2)
= 4 × 2
= 8
Hope this helps you. Do mark me as brainliest.
