Answer:
D.
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:
![\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(a)]= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%7B%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Bf%28a%29%5D%3D%20%5Clim_%7Bx%20%5Cto%20a%7D%5Cfrac%7Bf%28x%29-f%28a%29%7D%7Bx-a%7D%7D)
Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:
![\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(1)]= \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{\ln(x+1)-\ln(2)}{x-1}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%7B%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Bf%281%29%5D%3D%20%5Clim_%7Bx%20%5Cto%201%7D%5Cfrac%7B%5Cln%28x%2B1%29-%5Cln%282%29%7D%7Bx-1%7D%7D)
Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).
The answer will thus be D.
Answer:
About 200% force
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
I drawing nyo po tapos Yun na madali Lang yan
Hi!
Your answer is Infinite.
Here's why:
When you solve this system of equations your final answer will come down to x=x.
When this happens you know that the solution amount is infinite!
I hope this helps!
Feel free to give brainliest of you think this answer deserves it!
Answer:
$4911.45
Step-by-step explanation:
To find Megan's average daily balance, we first need to assume that the billing cycle begins at January 1st.
Now we know that there are 31 days in the month of January, we will use that as our basis.
20 days x 4805 = First 20 days of the billing cycle.
11 days 4805 + 300 = 21st day of the billing cycle.
31 days in the month
So now we simply add the first 20 days and the days after the 21st day and divide it by the number of days in the month since we're looking for the average.
(20 x 4805 + 11(4805+300))/31
(20 x 4805 + 11(5105))/31
(96100 + 56155)/31
152255/31
This then gives us:
$4911.45
