Answer: Option A
Step-by-step explanation: if we multiply two negative numbers we get a positive result, pls give brainliest
Answer:
77
Step-by-step explanation:
10%=11
because you divide 110 by 10.
Then i would multiply that by 3, giving you 33
110-33=77
Volume formula of a sphere:
![\frac{4}{3}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B4%7D%7B3%7D%20)
![\pi](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cpi%20)
r³
given:
r = 3
V =
![\frac{4}{3}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B4%7D%7B3%7D%20)
![\pi](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cpi%20)
(3)³
V =
![\frac{4}{3}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B4%7D%7B3%7D%20)
× 27
![\pi](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cpi%20)
V = 36
![\pi](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cpi%20)
units³ (in terms of
![\pi](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cpi%20)
)
V = 113.097 units³ ≈ 113.1 units³
Answer:
The correct approach will be "the likelihood of cashing the coupon".
Step-by-step explanation:
- That what's being examined as well as calculated throughout the experiment or observational study seems to be the dependent variable (almost always widely recognized as that of the responding variable). As a consequence of the modifications to something like the independent variable, that's what modifications.
- Whether large you are really at various ages would be an illustration of some kind of dependent variable.
Answer:
K = ![\frac{P}{TV}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BP%7D%7BTV%7D)
Step-by-step explanation:
P = KTV
Divide both sides by TV
(P/TV) = K