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Sophie [7]
3 years ago
9

¿Cuale son los numero reales?

Mathematics
1 answer:
jarptica [38.1K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The real numbers are any number that corresponds to a point on the line Real and can be classified into numbers natural, whole, rational and irrational. In other words, any real number is between minus infinity and plus infinity and we can represent it on the real line .

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A new automobile cost 11300 which is 100 more than 25 times a certain number what is the number​
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

The number is 448.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps

3 0
3 years ago
5x6-1+3=28 brackets or braces should be added
Artyom0805 [142]
5 · (6 - 1) + 3
= 5·5 + 3
= 25 + 3
= 28
7 0
3 years ago
A recipe uses 2 cups of milk to make 4 servings. If the same amount of milk is used for each serving, how many servings can be m
iren2701 [21]

Answer:

12 servings

Step-by-step explanation:

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7 0
3 years ago
the width of the morros in shannon's bathroom is 4/9 its length. The area of the mirror is 576 square inches. What are the dimen
fredd [130]
W=4L/9

A=LW, using W found above gives us

A=L(4L/9)

A=4L^2/9  and we were told that A=576 so

4L^2/9=576  multiply both sides by 9

4L^2=5184  divide both sides by 4

L^2=1296 take the square root of both sides

L=36, and we know that W=4L/9 so

W=4(36/9)=16

So the dimensions are: width=16in and length=36in
5 0
4 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
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