Answer:
req 1)
Plan A
0.42 x 150 + 0.17 x 70 = 74.9
Plan B
0.52 x 150 + 0.15 x 70 = 88.5
Plan C $80
req 2)
from 0 to 190 minutes Plan A
from 191 and beyond Plan C
req 3)
the proportion should be 1/6 daycalls and 5/6 evenings
Explanation:
150 day calls
70 minutes evening calls
Plan A
0.42 x 150 + 0.17 x 70 = 74.9
Plan B
0.52 x 150 + 0.15 x 70 = 88.5
Plan C $80
2) A will be preferable to B as it has the lower cost
now at some point C will be better as the cost is a flat rate
80 dollars / 0.42 per minute = 190.47
3) 0.42X + 0.17Y = 0.52X + 0.15Y
a minute of daycall is 10 cent higher in plan B
while a minute of evening call is 2 cent lower
thus, to balance there was to be 5 times more evening call than day times:
1:5 1 + 5 = 6
the proportion should be 1/6 daycalls and 5/6 evenings
The situation here is that the appraiser is:
- Taking a percentage for his services from the appraisal
Based on the given question, we can see than when an appraisal is made, the appraisal which is actually a written report that makes an estimate of the present value of a piece of property.
With this in mind, we can see that the appraiser preferred to take his payment from the percentage value of the <em>value of the property </em>which he appraised. This method is sure to give the appraiser more money than he would have made, especially if the value of the property was quite high.
Read more about appraisal reports here:
brainly.com/question/25088996
Answer:
Ending inventory= $5,592.45
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Mar. 1: Beginning inventory= 1,090 units at $7.25
Mar. 10: Purchase: 510 units at $7.75
Mar. 16: Purchase: 397 units at $8.35
Mar. 23: Purchase: 510 units at $9.05
First, we need to calculate the number of units in ending inventory:
Ending inventory in units= total units - units sold
Ending inventory in units= 2,507 - 1,880= 627
Under FIFO (first-in, first-out), the ending inventory is composed of the cost of the last units bought.
Ending inventory= 510*9.05 + 117*8.35= $5,592.45
Answer:
The depreciation expense for year 1 is $16,000
Explanation:
Depreciation: The depreciation was occurred due to tear and wear, obsolesce, time period, etc
Under the straight-line method, the depreciation should be charged with the same amount over the useful life.
The calculation is shown below:
= 
= 
= $16,000
The depreciation should be charged for $16,000 in year 1. Moreover, it is shown in the income statement in the debit side and in the cash flow statement also.
