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inessss [21]
3 years ago
11

A group of six golfers paid $295 to play a round of golf. Of the golfers, one is a member of the club and five are nonmembers. A

nother group of golfers consists of two members and three nonmembers. They paid a total of $205.
What is the cost for a member to play a round of golf, and what is the cost for a
nonmember?

Help pls
Mathematics
1 answer:
Mandarinka [93]3 years ago
7 0

Bred Sheeran

Vladimir Gluten

Toast Malone

Elon Crust

Mr Yeast

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compare these fractions. what happens when you multiply the numerator and the denominator by the same number? 2/3 4/6 6/9
matrenka [14]
When you multiply the numerator and denominator by the same number, you get an equivilent fraction
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3 years ago
Which decimal is equivalent?
Alina [70]

Answer:

It is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you divided 1÷3 and you get 0.3333333333

6 0
3 years ago
14. Write a linear equation to represent the sequence 3, 7, 11, 15, ….
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

RECURSIVE: f(n)=f(n-1)+4

EXPLICIT: f(n)=3+4n

6 0
2 years ago
Assume that we have two events, and , that are mutually exclusive. Assume further that we know and . If an amount is zero, enter
sweet [91]

Answer:

Explained below.

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete question is:

Assume that we have two events, A and B, that are mutually exclusive. Assume further that we know P(A) = 0.30 and P(B) =0.40.

What is P(A and B)?

What is P(A | B)?

Is P(A | B) equal to P(A)?

Are events A and B dependent or independent?

A student in statistics argues that the concepts of mutually exclusive events and independent events are really the same, and that if events are mutually exclusive they must be independent. Is this statement accurate?

What general conclusion would you make about mutually exclusive and independent events given the results of this problem?

Solution:

The probability of the two events <em>A</em> and <em>B</em> are:

P(A) = 0.30 and P(B) =0.40

(a)

Compute the value of P (A ∩ B) as follows:

P(A\cap B)=0

This is because mutually exclusive events are those events that cannot occur together.

(b)

Compute the value of P (A | B) as follows:

P(A|B)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{0}{0.40}=0

Thus, the value of P (A | B) is 0.

(c)

No, P (A | B) is not equal to the P (A).

(d)

As mentioned in part (a), mutually exclusive events are those events which cannot occur together.

That is, P(A\cap B)=0.

Events A and B are independent  if the chance of their concurrent happening is equivalent to the multiplication of their distinct probabilities.

That is, P(A\cap B)=P(A)\times P(B).

The concepts of mutually exclusive events and independent events are not the same.

(e)

As the it is provided that A and B are mutually exclusive events, we know that P(A\cap B)=0.

Now compute the value of P(A)\times P(B) as follows:

               P(A)\times P(B)=0.30\times 0.40=0.12\neq 0

Thus, the events A and B are not independent.

Thus, if two events are mutually exclusive events they cannot be independent.

4 0
3 years ago
In a certain​ lottery, an urn contains balls numbered 1 to 26. From this​ urn, 6 balls are chosen​ randomly, without replacement
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

\frac{1}{230230}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that in a certain​ lottery, an urn contains balls numbered 1 to 26

From this​ urn, 6 balls are chosen​ randomly, without replacement.

Bet amount 1 dollar and he selects a set of six numbers.

If these match with those chosen from the urn he wins (order does not matter)

Total ways of choosing 6 out of 26 = 26C6 = \frac{26!}{20!6!} \\=230230

The way he selects = 1

Hence probability of winning  =\frac{1}{230230}

with one ticket

4 0
3 years ago
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