Answer:
The 52 of its portfolio should be allocated to the zero-coupon bonds to immunie if there are no other assets funding the plan.
Explanation:
the duration of the perpetuity = (1+YTM)/YTM
= (1+0.04)/0.04
= 26 years
the weights of the bonds = w
5*w + 26*(1-w) = 15
5*w + 26 - 26*w = 15
21*w = 11
w = 0.52
Therefore, The 52 of its portfolio should be allocated to the zero-coupon bonds to immunie if there are no other assets funding the plan.
Answer:
The multiple choices are as follows:
18.6%
14.0%
22.8%
25.0%
The second option is the correct answer,14%
Explanation:
The capital asset pricing asset model formula for computing a firm's cost of equity according to Miller and Modgiliani is given below:
Ke=Rf+Beta*(Mr-Rf)
Rf is the risk free of 2% which is the return expected from zero risk investment such as government treasury bills.
Beta is how risky an investment in a company is compared to similar businesses operating in similar business sector of the company given as 2.0
Mr is the expected return on market portfolio which 8%
Ke=2%+2*(8%-2%)
Ke=2%+2*(6%)
Ke=2%+12%=14%
Answer:
$5,000 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total variable overhead variance is given below:
= Budgeted machine hours allowed for actual output × Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour - Actual total variable overhead
= 32,000 hours × $2.50 - $75,000
= $80,000 - $75,000
= $5,000 favorable
Since the favorable is more than the actual so it should be favorable
911
Explanation:
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Answer:
c) the condition subsequent has occurred;
Explanation:
Since in the question it is given that the John and his wife Martha get a divorce and according to the divorce settlement contract she agrees to pay the alimony to John for $5,000 per month for his lifetime or until that time when he should remarry
If John remarries after three years, so the alimony benefits is ceased because the subsequent condition has occurred due to which he will not get the amount further in the future
