Answer:
A. 2 years
B. 86.96
C. 16.46%
Explanation:
Payback period calculates the amount of time taken to recoup the initial investment made on a project.
The net present value substracts the present value of tax adjusted cash flows from the amount invested in the project.
Using the financial calculator to find the NPV:
Cash flow for year 0 = -500
Cash flow for year 1 = 300
Cash flow for year 2 = 200
Cash flow for year 3 = 150
Interest rate = 6%
NPV = $86.96
Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the tax adjusted cash flows from a project to the original amount invested.
Using the financial calculator to find the NPV:
Cash flow for year 0 = -500
Cash flow for year 1 = 300
Cash flow for year 2 = 200
Cash flow for year 3 = 150
Interest rate = 6%
IRR = 16.46%
Conversion cost is defined as the sum of direct labor costs and manufacturing overhead costs. It is the manufacturing cost needed to convert raw materials to a product. From the information given above, the conversion cost is the summation of direct material costs, direct labor costs and factory overhead costs.
$3000,000 + 7,000,000 + 5,000,000 = 15,000,000
Therefore, the conversion cost is $15,000,000.
Answer:
What happens to the wealth effect of a change in the aggregate price level as a result of this allocation of assets?
- The consumers' wealth effect will rise since the slope of the aggregate demand curve increases as the prices of assets increases, i.e. the slope of the aggregate demand curve becomes steeper as customers become wealthier.
Will aggregate demand still be downward sloping? Why or why not?
- The aggregate demand curve sill still be downward sloping because as the price of a good or service increases, the quantity demanded will still decrease. An inverse relationship exists between price changes and quantity demanded.
Answer:
$2.50
Explanation:
The Earnings Per Share of a company is determined by using the formula:
EPS= (Net Income of the Company - Dividend to Preferred Shareholders) ÷ Average Outstanding Shares of the Company
Since there is no dividend to preferred shareholders
EPS= Net Income of the Company - ÷ Average Outstanding Shares of the Company
=30000 ÷ 12000
=$2.50
Hello,
Here is your answer:
The proper answer is option A "true". It is extremely important to find the source of the information because the source could not be verified (which means its giving false information).
Your answer is A.
If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!
Hope this helps!
