Answer: Option A
Explanation: Operating income refers to the income that the company earns from performing its core operations. It is also denoted as EBIT. Thus, the difference between operating income and income after tax is the tax that has been deducted from the operating income.
While calculating accounting profit, opportunity cost is not deducted from the revenue hence before tax and after tax depicts the investments that were made to earn that profit.
Answer:
B) 60,100
Explanation:
Since months have passed between the bond issuance and October 31. The amortization of the premium received depends on the amount of interest recognized. When the effective interest method is used, interest expense is based on the yield rate and the beginning book value.
interest expense = ($1,000,000 + $62,000) x 10% x 6/12 = $53,100
interest payable = $1,000,000 x 11% x 6/12 = $55,000
the difference (bond premium) = $55,000 - $53,100 = $1,900
unamortized bond premium = $62,000 - $1,900 = $60,100
It will be weaker. According to Hering’s opponent-process model, our eyes will experience a certain level of fatigue after observing a certain object for a prolonged period of time. This level of fatigue usually happen only temporarily and you could experience the same level of color distinguish if you let your eyes rest for a while.
Answer:
17%
Explanation:
Purchase price of bond = $921.77
Years investment held = n = 7
Coupon rate = C = 15%
Frequency of payment = m = 2
Annual coupon = $1,000 × (0.15/2) = $75.00
Realized Yield = i
Selling price of bond = PB = $961.22
The realized rate of return is approximately 16.6 percent. Using a financial calculator provided an exact yield of 16.625 percent.
Answer:
=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.
=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.
Explanation:
So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.
The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;
The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.
Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.
= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.
Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .
