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GaryK [48]
2 years ago
5

RAWRRRRRRRRR Whahahaha​

Business
1 answer:
____ [38]2 years ago
3 0

Explanation:

wow

I see you are interested in horror movies

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Assume the following exchange rates: $1 = NZ$3, NZ$1 = MXP2, and $1 = MXP7. Given this information, as you and others perform tr
Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

c. Appreciate; Appreciate

Explanation:

Triangular arbitrage is the act of taking an opportunity resulting from a pricing discrepancy among three different currencies when the currency's exchange rates do not exactly match up

This cases are very rare and for a quite short period of time so there are very few traders who takes the advantange of them.

Lets study th given cases here:

A) NZ dollar Versus Mexican Peso

The exchage rate is 1NZ$= 2 Mexican Pesos (MXP)

But if we apply the triangular arbitrage:

1 NZ dollar = 0.3333 US$

and we know tha 1 US$= 7 Mexican Pesos (MXP

Then 1 NZ dollar = 0.3333* 7 MXP= 2.333 MXP

So the NZ dollar appreciates

B) MXP Versus U$S

The exchage rate is 1 MXP= (1/7) U$S

But if we apply the triangular arbitrage:

1 MXP = 0.5 NZ

and we know tha 1 NZ= 0.333 US$

Then 1 MXP = 0.5* 0.333 U$S= 0.166 U$S

So the MXP appreciates

7 0
3 years ago
Products that appeal to mothers have evolved since mothers are no longer homogeneous like before. Instead, there are traditional
cupoosta [38]

Answer: Change in lifestyle

Explanation:

The lifestyle of current day mom's is very different from what was obtainable in the past, therefore manufacturers need to adjust their products to suit the new lifestyle of current day mom's. Lifestyle here means the behavior, likes and dislikes of current day mom's.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Davidson international has 13,700 shares of stock outstanding at a price per share of $28. the firm has decided to repurchase 50
alexdok [17]

The shareholder equity is equal to:

$28/share * 13 700 shares = $ 383,600

This is the total capital of Davidson International. Now, assuming that there is no additional income since it is not implied in the problem, the total equity does not change. However, the shares become: 13,700 + 500 = 14 200 shares.

Price per share now becomes:

$383 600 / 14 200 shares = $27/share

6 0
3 years ago
Recent financial statement data for Harmony Health Foods (HHF) Inc. is shown below. Current liabilities $ 180 Income before inte
Anarel [89]

Answer:

B. 75%.

Explanation:

The formula to compute the long-term debt to equity ratio is shown below:

= (Long term debt) ÷ (total shareholder equity) × 100

= ($360 ÷ $480) × 100

= 75%

All other information which is given in the question is not consider for the computation part. Hence, ignored it

We simply divide the long term debt with the total shareholder equity to find out the ratio between them

3 0
3 years ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
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