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8_murik_8 [283]
3 years ago
10

A Broker Price Opinion (BOP) and Competitive Market Analysis (CMA) are estimates of value created by real estate licensees for m

arketing purposes. Since they were not prepared by a licensed appraiser, the follow words must appear at their bottom:
Business
1 answer:
dimulka [17.4K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

This evaluation was prepared by a licensed real estate broker and is not an appraisal. This evaluation cannot be used for the purposes of obtaining financing.

Explanation:

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Superior Company has provided you with the following information before any year-end adjustments: Net credit sales are $131,750.
aleksklad [387]

Answer:

$3,553

Explanation:

Credit losses = Net credit sales × Historical percentage of credit losses

= $131,750 × 3%

= $3,953

Allowance for doubtful account has a credit balance of $400

The estimated bad debt expense can therefore be calculated as:

Bad debt expense = Credit losses - Allowance for doubtful accounts credit balance

= $3,953 - $400

= $3,553

Hence, the estimated bad debt expense using the percentage of credit sales method is $3,553

5 0
3 years ago
Some americans argue that _____ should be used to keep domestic wages high and unemployment low.
Lady_Fox [76]
The answer is "tariffs".

If we define tariff in simple words, then we can say that tariff is a tax and it adds to the cost of imported merchandise and is one of a few exchange arrangements that a nation can authorize. 
Tariffs are regularly made to ensure newborn child ventures and creating economies but at the same time are utilized by further developed economies with created enterprises.
3 0
3 years ago
Please can u explain 5 types of ledgers​
horsena [70]

Answer:

1. Sales ledger

2. Purchase ledger

3. Cash ledger

4. General ledger

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A corporate bond has a face value of $1,000 and a coupon rate of 9.5%. The bond matures in 12 years and has a current market pri
joja [24]

Answer:

5.71%

Explanation:

The after tax cost of debt=pretax cost of debt*(1-t)

where t is the tax rate of 35% or 0.35

pretax cost of debt=yield to maturity

The yield to maturity can be determined using rate formula in excel as below:

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of coupon interest payable by the bonds i.e 12 coupons in 12 years

pmt is the annual coupon=$1000*9.5%=$95

pv is the current market price-flotation cost=$1,100-$48=$1052

fv is the face value of $1000

=rate(12,95,-1052,1000)=8.78%

After tax cost of debt=8.78% *(1-0.35)=5.71%

6 0
3 years ago
g Samco signed a 5​-year note payable on January​ 1, 2018​, of $ 475 comma 000. The note requires annual principal payments each
Tanya [424]

Answer:

B. a debit to Interest Expense for $ 42 comma 750.

C. a credit to Cash of $ 137 comma 750.

Explanation:

Payment of Note Payable includes the payment of interest on the outstanding balance and principal amount of the note. In this question it is the first payment of the note payable, so the outstanding balance is the face value of the note, Interest is calculated using this value, A fix payment of $95,000 is also made.

As per given data

Principal Payment = $95,000

First Interest payment = $475,000 x 9% = $42,750

Total Payment = $95,000 + $42,750 = $137,750

Journal Entry for first payment

Dr. Interest Expense $42,750

Dr. Not Payable         $95,000

Cr. Cash                     $137,750

6 0
3 years ago
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