Answer:
BiG ChUnGuS moo
Step-by-step explanation:
We have that
<span>tan(theta)sin(theta)+cos(theta)=sec(theta)
</span><span>[sin(theta)/cos(theta)] sin(theta)+cos(theta)=sec(theta)
</span>[sin²<span>(theta)/cos(theta)]+cos(theta)=sec(theta)
</span><span>the next step in this proof
is </span>write cos(theta)=cos²<span>(theta)/cos(theta) to find a common denominator
so
</span>[sin²(theta)/cos(theta)]+[cos²(theta)/cos(theta)]=sec(theta)<span>
</span>{[sin²(theta)+cos²(theta)]/cos(theta)}=sec(theta)<span>
remember that
</span>sin²(theta)+cos²(theta)=1
{[sin²(theta)+cos²(theta)]/cos(theta)}------------> 1/cos(theta)
and
1/cos(theta)=sec(theta)-------------> is ok
the answer is the option <span>B.)
He should write cos(theta)=cos^2(theta)/cos(theta) to find a common denominator.</span>
3,8
That’s the answer Hope this helped
The statement below would be the least effective element of a plan Vitor could use to accurately estimate (or minimize) overdraft fees on the account is he need to <span>use the debit card for a large number of small purchases and check the balance later.</span>
Answer:
i think 4 th option
if u want to verify just substitute (4,-2)
