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3 years ago

What is the mode? -2 -6 -7 -4 -7 -6 -6 -2

Mathematics

2 answers:

Aliun [14]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

Mode in math means the number that is the most frequent number found in a data set, and in this data set shown, -6 comes the most frequently.

Sholpan [36]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

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Select the correct answer.

Veronika [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

let y = 5x - 3

rearrange making x the subject

add 3 to both sides

5x = y + 3 ( divide both sides by 5 )

x = $\frac{y+3}{5}$

change y back into terms of x, hence

$f^{-1}$ (x) = $\frac{x+3}{5}$ → B

4 0

3 years ago

The law f(t) = -t2 + 6t + 15 represents the number of kilometers of congestion, as a function of time, registered in a city. Wit

andrey2020 [161]

Time is -b/2a, which is 3.
f(3) = 24 = maximum congestion

3 0

3 years ago

How much would Howard Steele need to invest today so that he may withdraw $12,000 each year for the next 20 years, assuming a ra

morpeh [17]

I think its <span>$117,817.20</span>

3 0

4 years ago

g 78% of all Millennials drink Starbucks coffee at least once a week. Suppose a random sample of 50 Millennials will be selected

Tatiana [17]

Answer:

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

$np=50*0.78=39 \geq 10$

$n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10$

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

$p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})$

With the following parameters:

$\mu_ p = 0.78$

$\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

$np=50*0.78=39 \geq 10$

$n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10$

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

$p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})$

With the following parameters:

$\mu_ p = 0.78$

$\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586$

6 0

3 years ago

A tailor earns (12y² + y – 35) pesos for working (3y – 5) hours. How much does he earn per hour?

Natalka [10]

Answer:

4y+7

Step-by-step explanation:

(12y² + y – 35)/(3y – 5)

=(3y-5)(4y+7)/(3y-5) (factorization)

=4y + 7

Hope this helped!

4 0

3 years ago