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Ksju [112]
3 years ago
6

5. The mean exam score for the first group of twenty examinees applying for a security job is 35.3 with a standard deviation of

3.6.
The mean exam score for the second group of twenty examinees is 34.1 with a
standard deviation of 0.5. Both distributions are close to symmetric in shape.

a. Use the mean and standard deviation to compare the scores of the two groups.

b. The minimum score required to get an in-person interview is 33. Which group
do you think has more people get in-person interviews?
Mathematics
1 answer:
skad [1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:The mean exam score for the first group of twenty examinees applying for a security

job is 35.3 with a standard deviation of 3.6.

The mean exam score for the second group of twenty examinees is 34.1 with a

standard deviation of 0.5. Both distributions are close to symmetric in shape.

Use the mean and standard deviation to compare the scores of the two groups.

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An ice cream store sells 28 flavors of ice cream. Determine the number of 4 dip sundaes.
katrin [286]

Answer:

20,475\ ways

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

<u><em>Combinations</em></u> are a way to calculate the total outcomes of an event where order of the outcomes does not matter.

To calculate combinations, we will use the formula

C(n,r)=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

where

n represents the total number of items

r represents the number of items being chosen at a time.

In this problem

n=28\\r=4

substitute

C(28,4)=\frac{28!}{4!(28-4)!}\\\\C(28,4)=\frac{28!}{4!(24)!}

simplify

C(28,4)=\frac{(28)(27)(26)(25)(24!)}{4!(24)!}

C(28,4)=\frac{(28)(27)(26)(25)}{(4)(3)(2)(1)}

C(28,4)=20,475\ ways

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3 years ago
A pair of pants originally cost $15 and are 10% off. In addition, you have a coupon to get another 20% off. How much will the pa
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I believe it is 10.50
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(1+tanx)/(sinx+cosx)=secx
jek_recluse [69]

\frac{1+\tan x}{\sin x+\cos x}=\sec x is proved

<h3><u>Solution:</u></h3>

Given that,

\frac{1+\tan x}{\sin x+\cos x}=\sec x  ------- (1)

First we will simplify the LHS and then compare it with RHS

\text { L. H.S }=\frac{1+\tan x}{\sin x+\cos x}  ------ (2)

\text {We know that } \tan x=\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}

Substitute this in eqn (2)

=\frac{1+\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}}{\sin x+\cos x}

On simplification we get,

=\frac{\frac{\sin x+\cos x}{\cos x}}{\sin x+\cos x}

=\frac{\sin x+\cos x}{\cos x} \times \frac{1}{\sin x+\cos x}

Cancelling the common terms (sinx + cosx)

=\frac{1}{c o s x}

We know secant is inverse of cosine

=\sec x=R . H . S

Thus L.H.S = R.H.S

\frac{1+\tan x}{\sin x+\cos x}=\sec x

Hence proved

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4 years ago
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QveST [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

By Law of Indices, a^m * a^n = a^(m+n).

Therefore 8³ * 8⁵ = 8^(3+5) = 8⁸.

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3 years ago
A certain tennis player makes a successful first serve 70% of the time. Assume that each serve is independent of the others. If
EleoNora [17]

this is a binomial problem: p = 0.7 and q = 0.3

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4 years ago
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