To be precise, the size of your sample space is <span><span>(<span>2410</span>)</span><span>(<span>2410</span>)</span></span>. This number does go on the bottom of the fraction, and what goes on top is the size of the event. Break up the event into independent events 1. choose the 2 defective bulbs, and 2. choose the remaining 8 bulbs. I don't have much choice in event 1. There is only one way to choose both of the defective balls. In other words, <span><span>(<span>22</span>)</span><span>(<span>22</span>)</span></span> (choosing 2 defective bulbs from a set of 2 defective bulbs). For event 2, there are <span><span>24−2=22</span><span>24−2=22</span></span> nondefective bulbs, and I must choose <span>88</span> of them, so that's <span><span>(<span>228</span>)</span><span>(<span>228</span>)</span></span>. Finally, since events 1 and 2 are independent, we multiply the answers for the combined event: <span><span><span>(<span>22</span>)</span><span>(<span>228</span>)</span></span><span><span>(<span>22</span>)</span><span>(<span>228</span>)</span></span></span>
<span><span>P=<span><span><span>(<span>22</span>)</span><span>(<span>228</span>)</span></span><span>(<span>2410</span>)</span></span></span><span>P=<span><span><span>(<span>22</span>)</span><span>(<span>228</span>)</span></span><span>(<span>2410</span>)</span></span></span></span>
Or, since <span><span><span>(<span>22</span>)</span>=1</span><span><span>(<span>22</span>)</span>=1</span></span>,
<span><span>P=<span><span>(<span>228</span>)</span><span>(<span>2410</span>)</span></span></span><span>P=<span><span>(<span>228</span>)</span><span>(<span>2410</span>)</span></span></span></span>
Hope this helps!
Answer: 14.5 feet
Step-by-step explanation: that’s he correct answer delta math gave me AFTER I got it wrong
Volume of sphere = 1766.25 cm^3
Step-by-step explanation:
The radius of sphere = 7.5 cm
Volume of sphere = ?
The formula used is:

Putting values:

So, Volume of sphere = 1766.25 cm^3
Keywords: Volume of sphere
Learn more about Volume of sphere at:
#learnwithBrainly
Answer:
Check the explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
let the money on bet is X.
probability of winning =18/38=9/19
probability of losing =(1-9/19)=10/19
expected outcome =
probability *return =(
Expected value of return after one bet is =(9/19*x)-(10/19*x)=-1x/19
it is negative which is obvious cause casinos are there to earn money.
a) Our best strategy in this case as probability of winning is near by 50 %, we should place a bet of 1 $ each,and when we lose one bet consecutively we should bet twice the amount..
Cause two consecutive losses on black has less probability.
c) In case we have to reach 30 $ we have to use the same strategy as above.