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Semenov [28]
3 years ago
7

This is a Bodmas question 2+4×6÷3give me answer with correct explanation I will mark you as brainliest

Mathematics
1 answer:
Law Incorporation [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Bodmas in full is Bracket Of Division

Bracket Of Division Multiplication Addition and Subtraction

2 + 4 \times 6 \div 3

2 \div 3 \times 6 + 4

0.66666 \times 6 + 4

4 + 4

= 8

hope that helps you

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Answer:

x = 24

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Step-by-step explanation:

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A train travels at a constant rate of 45 miles per hour.
givi [52]
A. d=45t
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During the final 5 seconds of a race a cyclist increased her velocity from 4 m/s to 7 m/s . What was her average acceleration du
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

The average acceleration of the cyclist was 0.6 m/s².

Step-by-step explanation:

Acceleration:

The rate change of velocity per unit time is call the acceleration of the object.

a=\frac{v-u}t

u= initial velocity

v= final velocity

t= time taken change of velocity.

During the final 5 seconds of a race cyclist increased her velocity from 4m/s to 7 m/s

Here v= 7 m/s and u=4 m/s t=5 seconds

\therefore a=\frac{7\ m/s-4 \ m/s}{5s}

     =\frac{3}{5} \ m/s^2

     =0.6 m/s²

The average acceleration of the cyclist was 0.6 m/s².

8 0
3 years ago
The line segment formed by joining points A (-1,y) B (0,0), and the line segment joined by forming points C (6,3) D (8,9) share
Airida [17]

Answer:

<h3>-3</h3>

Step-by-step explanation:

For two parallel lines. their slope are equal

Find the slope of each of the lines

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m = 0 -y/0+1

mA = -y/1

For line B;

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8 0
3 years ago
Box of 15 gadgets is known to contain 5 defective gadgets if 4 gadgets are drawn at random what is the probability of finding no
baherus [9]

To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:

P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)

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r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)

p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget

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Calculating for p:

p = 5 / 15 = 0.33

So,

q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67

 

Calculating for P when r = 1:

P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3

P (r = 1) = 0.3970

 

 

Calculating for P when r = 2:

P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2

P (r = 2) = 0.2933

 

Therefore the total probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets is:

P = 0.3970 + 0.2933

P = 0.6903

 

Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.

5 0
4 years ago
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