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polet [3.4K]
2 years ago
8

A pen costs $2.09 and a marker costs $1.45. Ken bought one pen and one marker

Mathematics
1 answer:
Reika [66]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$1.46

Step-by-step explanation:

2.09 + 1.45 = 3.54

5 - 3.54 = 1.46

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If a recipe says 1/4 for 4 servings then how many cups will 8 serving be for?
ehidna [41]

\dfrac{1}{4}\dots4 \\x\dots8 \\\dfrac{\frac{1}{4}}{x}=\dfrac{4}{8} \\\dfrac{1}{4x}=\dfrac{1}{2} \\1=2x \\x=\boxed{\dfrac{1}{2}}

Hope this helps.

5 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ME?! BRAINLIEST ANSWER PLUS EXTRA POINTS! The perimeter of a basketball court is 84 meters and he length is 6 meters
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

I hope this helps you and you have an amazing day the answer

Width=12

Length=30

Step-by-step explanation:

L=2W+6 is

P=2L+2W

84=2(2W+6)+2W

84=4W+12+2W

84=6W+12

6W=84-12

6W=72

W=72/6

W=12 ans. for the width.

L=2*12+6=24+6=30 ans. for the length.

Proof:

84=2*30+2*12

84=60+24

84=84

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A Martian couple has children until they have 2 males (sexes of children are independent). Compute the expected number of childr
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

a) 6

b) 4

c) 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Let p be the probability of having a female Martian, and of course, 1-p the probability of having a male Martian.

To compute the expected total number of trials before 2 males are born, imagine an experiment simulating the fact that 2 males are born is performed n times.

Let ak be the number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment k. That is,

a1= number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment 1

a2= number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment 2

and so on.

If a1 + a2 + … + an = N

we would expect Np females.  

Since the experiment was performed n times, there 2n males (recall that the experiment stops when 2 males are born).

So we would expect 2n = N(1-p), or

N/n = 2/(1-p)

But N/n is the average number of trials per experiment, that is, the expectation.

<em>We have then that the expected number of trials before 2 males are born is 2/(1-p) where p is the probability of having a female. </em>

a)

Here we have the probability of having a male is half as likely as females. So

1-p = p/2 hence p=2/3

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1-2/3) = 2/(1/3) =6

This means <em>the couple would have 6 children</em>: 4 females (the first 4 trials) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

b)

Here the probability of having a female = probability of having a male = 1/2

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1/2) = 4

This means<em> the couple would have 4 children</em>: 2 females (the first 2 trials) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

c)

Here, 1-p = 2p so p=1/3

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1-1/3) = 2/(2/3) = 6/2 =3

This means<em> the couple would have 3 children</em>: 1 female (the first trial) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

5 0
3 years ago
Help me so much rn plz plz
Alecsey [184]

Answer:

5(9+x)

Step-by-step explanation:

5 x 9 = 45

then if do 5 times x it would look like 5x

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9? <br><br>A.) 111<br>B.) 222<br>C.) 333<br>D.) 444
Leto [7]

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

3+3+3=

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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