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den301095 [7]
2 years ago
7

Solve the inequality

Mathematics
1 answer:
Irina18 [472]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The answer for ur question is x> 4

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Given that 6x – 5y = 14<br>Find x when y = 2​
Sloan [31]

Answer:

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

6x - 5y = 14 ← substitute y = 2 into the equation

6x - 5(2) = 14

6x - 10 = 14 ( add 10 to both sides )

6x = 24 ( divide both sides by 6 )

x = 4

4 0
2 years ago
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Number 6 help. <br> .......................
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3a^2 (ab^2+b^2)=<br> How much
kiruha [24]

Answer is 3a²b (a + b)

Step-by-step explanation:

  • Step 1: Find 3a² (ab²+b²)

⇒ 3a² (ab²+b²) = 3a³b + 3a²b² = 3a²b (a + b)

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Please help<br><br> See the picture <br><br><br> Line A , B , C OR D ?<br><br> Help
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Answer:

It's the one on the bottom left

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
A Martian couple has children until they have 2 males (sexes of children are independent). Compute the expected number of childr
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

a) 6

b) 4

c) 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Let p be the probability of having a female Martian, and of course, 1-p the probability of having a male Martian.

To compute the expected total number of trials before 2 males are born, imagine an experiment simulating the fact that 2 males are born is performed n times.

Let ak be the number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment k. That is,

a1= number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment 1

a2= number of trials performed until 2 males are born in experiment 2

and so on.

If a1 + a2 + … + an = N

we would expect Np females.  

Since the experiment was performed n times, there 2n males (recall that the experiment stops when 2 males are born).

So we would expect 2n = N(1-p), or

N/n = 2/(1-p)

But N/n is the average number of trials per experiment, that is, the expectation.

<em>We have then that the expected number of trials before 2 males are born is 2/(1-p) where p is the probability of having a female. </em>

a)

Here we have the probability of having a male is half as likely as females. So

1-p = p/2 hence p=2/3

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1-2/3) = 2/(1/3) =6

This means <em>the couple would have 6 children</em>: 4 females (the first 4 trials) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

b)

Here the probability of having a female = probability of having a male = 1/2

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1/2) = 4

This means<em> the couple would have 4 children</em>: 2 females (the first 2 trials) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

c)

Here, 1-p = 2p so p=1/3

The expected number of trials would be

2/(1-1/3) = 2/(2/3) = 6/2 =3

This means<em> the couple would have 3 children</em>: 1 female (the first trial) and 2 males (the last 2 trials).

5 0
4 years ago
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