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3 years ago

Find the area of the following shape. You must show all work to receive credit.

Mathematics

1 answer:

statuscvo [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

8 unit ^2 or 8cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

area 1

1/2 ( 3 x 3 ) = 4.5 unit ^2

area 2 we split the triangle into half

= 1/2 ( 2 x 2) = 2 unit ^2

we know the other half is also 2 unit ^2 but we add then subtract

1/2 (1 x 1) = 0.5^2

To get

4.5 + 2+ 2 - ( 0.5) = 8 unit ^2

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A box contains 10 green marbles and 11 white marbles. If the first marble chosen was a green marble, what is the probability of

Neko [114]

Answer:

11/20

Step-by-step explanation:

At the beginning, the number of marbles in the box are:

10 green marbles

11 white marbles

The first marble chosen is green, and then it is not replaced in the box. Therefore, the number of green marbles left in the box is 9.

Therefore, the total number of marbles left in the box is:

$n=9+11=20$

Now we want to find the probability to choose a white marble. The number of white marble is

$w=11$

Therefore, the probability of choosing a white marble is:

$p(w)=\frac{w}{n}=\frac{11}{20}$

3 0

3 years ago

Find the value of x. if necessary, round to the nearest tenth a=47sq in

kipiarov [429]

the picture in the attached figure

we know that

area of the triangle is equal to

$A=(b*h)/2$

in this problem

A=47 in²

b=x

h=x

$47=x*x/2 \\ x^{2} =94 \\ x= \sqrt{94} \\ x=9.69 in \\ x=9.7in$

therefore

the answer is

x=9.7 in

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

HELP ME PLZZ, ASAP!!<br><br> In your own words explain what a Cross Section is.

wariber [46]

Answer:

A cross section is a surface or shape that is exposed by making a straight cut through something especially at right angles to an axis.

4 0

3 years ago

Consider a game in which a participant pays $2 to roll a die. The participant receives $3 if they roll a 1 (i.E. They go up by a

Sauron [17]

Answer:

The expected monetary value of a single roll is $1.17.

Step-by-step explanation:

The sample space of rolling a die is:

S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6}

The probability of rolling any of the six numbers is same, i.e.

P (1) = P (2) = P (3) = P (4) = P (5) = P (6) = $\frac{1}{6}$

The expected pay for rolling the numbers are as follows:

E (X = 1) = $3

E (X = 2) = $0

E (X = 3) = $0

E (X = 4) = $0

E (X = 5) = $0

E (X = 6) = $4

The expected value of an experiment is:

$E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X=x)$

Compute the expected monetary value of a single roll as follows:

$E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X=x)\\=[E(X=1)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=2)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=3)\times \frac{1}{6}]\\+[E(X=4)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=5)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=6)\times \frac{1}{6}]\\=[3\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]\\+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[4\times \frac{1}{6}]\\=1.17$

Thus, the expected monetary value of a single roll is $1.17.

7 0

3 years ago

The negative sign in 15t-2t belongs to the term____?

alexdok [17]

The expression 15t – 2t not equivalent to 2t – 15t because the negative sign in 15t – 2t belongs to the term 2t.

Solution:

Given expressions are 15t – 2t and 2t – 15t.

To determine 15t – 2t is equivalent to 2t – 15t or not.

Substitute t = 2 in above two expressions.

15t – 2t = 15(2) – 2(2)

= 30 – 4

= 26

2t – 15t = 2(2) – 15(2)

= 4 – 30

= –26

The values of the expressions are different when t = 2.

So, 15t – 2t is not equivalent to 2t – 15t.

Hence the expression 15t – 2t not equivalent to 2t – 15t because the negative sign in 15t – 2t belongs to the term 2t.

7 0

3 years ago