Hmmmm I don’t know to be honest
<span>The original Napoleonic Code, or Code Napoléon (originally called the Code civil des francais, or civil code of the French), was the French civil code, established at the behest of Napoléon. It entered into force on March 21, 1804. The Napoleonic code was the first legal code to be established in a country with a civil legal system. It was based on Roman law, and followed Justinian's Corpus Juris Civilis in dividing civil law into:
1.personal status;
2.property;
3.acquisition of property.
The Napoleonic Code properly said dealt only with civil law issues; other codes were also published dealing with criminal law and commercial law.
Even though the Napoleonic Code was not the first, it was the most influential one. (For a list of early codes, see here). It was adopted in many countries that were occupied by French forces during the Napoleonic Wars and thus formed the basis of the private law systems also of Italy, the Netherlands, Belgium, Spain, Portugal and their former colonies.
Other codes with some influence in their own right were the Swiss, German and Austrian ones, but even there some influence of the French code can be felt, as the Napoleonic Code is considered the first sucessful codification. Thus, the civil law systems of the countries of modern Europe, with the exception of the United Kingdom, Ireland, Russia, and the Scandinavian countries have, to different degrees, been influenced by the Napoleonic Code. The Code has thus been the most permanent legacy of Napoleon. </span>
Answer: Montesquieu
Explanation: Montesquieu was one of the greatest political phylosophers of eighteenth century. He is a French National known for his works on the separation of Power,he was also a French Judge he has a strong sympathy for women,their values and prejudice placed on them as they age,he spoke against the discrimination of Women and other oppressed class of persons.
He believes that with separation of power no single individual will have too much power on his hands to oppress others.
Yes. Just so you know, I'm only in 11th grade, so I might not be using the right vocab, but I'll try my best.
It can be justified the same way that it was during the Korean War. In order to repel communism in South Korea, the US troops were launched. This was a unilateral military action. In the same way that the US used the Monroe Doctrine to help aid and enforce their rule in other places, this is what happened during the Iraqi War. The US saw an unjust system of government reigning unfairly, so they intervened to overthrow it. The justification there was that they should have been able to choose their own government (in short, they should have a fair and free democracy).
