Answer
Part 1) f(x)⁻¹ = 40 - x/2,500
Part 2) quantity
Explanation
f(x)= 100,000-2,500x
In finding the inverse of F(x) we make x the suject of the formula.
f(x)= 100,000-2,500x
2,500x = 100,000 - f(x)
x = 100,000/2,500 - f(x)/2500
x = 40 - f(x)/2,500
Now interchange x with f(x).
f(x)⁻¹ = 40 - x/2,500
I believe it's mean absolute deviation
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is B) 55.5 Do you need me to work it out for you?
Reduce the numbers with 3. Any expression divided by 1 remains the same.
Step-by-step explanation:
I think you are clear. You can follow me to get more answers. Thanks.
