Let's say the tv was 100$ . Reduced by 20% means the tv is now 100 - 20 = 80% of the original price.
0.8(100) = 80$
Reduced again; by 10% means that it is now 100-10 = 90% of the 80$
0.9(80) = 72$
sale price ÷ original price
72$ / 100$ = 0.72 which is 72% of the original price. Which is a mark down of:
100 - 72 = 28%
The new price is 28% lower than the original price.
The line is starting from right side and goes thorough left .
Means
- Its starts from 1st Quadrant and goes to 3rd Quadrant.(+ve to -ve)
- Y is infinite
Hence
The solution is
![\\ \sf\longmapsto (0,\infty]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5C%5C%20%5Csf%5Clongmapsto%20%280%2C%5Cinfty%5D)
Answer:
Yes.
Step-by-step explanation:
Although there is not much info on this question, if you were to assume that there are 3 different answers or 3 different methods of solving that problem, it is definitey possible to assume that this is possible.
Answer:
- c=5<-30
Step-by-step explanation:
The functions f(x), g(x) and h(x) are all linear functions
- The function value that is largest is h(-100)
- The function value that is largest is h(-100)
- The function value that is largest is f(1/100)
<h3>How to determine the function with the largest values</h3>
The functions are given as:



At x = 100, we have:



Hence, the function value that is largest is f(100)
At x = -100, we have:



Hence, the function value that is largest is h(-100)
At x = 1/100, we have:



Hence, the function value that is largest is f(1/100)
Read more about linear functions at:
brainly.com/question/15602982