Answer:
You got this, never give up!
Explanation:
Believe in yourself. : )
Answer:
$ 3,085
Explanation:
Given that;
The present value(PV) ------ ???
Future payment (F) ---- $5,000
The annual effective rate are 4%, 5% and 5.5% respectively, which can be illustrated as;
r = 0.04, 0.05 and 0.055 respectively.
The present value formula is given as:
PV = 5000 × (1.04)⁻³(1.05)⁻²(1.055)⁻⁵
= $ 3,084.814759
≅ $ 3,085
The deprecation expense in year 1 is $1225.
<h3>
What is the depreciation expense in year 1?</h3>
Depreciation is a method that is used to expense the carrying value of an asset. Straight line depreciation is a depreciation method that allocates the deprecation expense evenly across the useful life of the asset.
Straight line depreciation expense is a function of the useful life of the asset, the cost of the asset and the salvage value of the asset.
Straight line depreciation expense = (number of months from Sept to Dec / number of months in a year) x (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life
(3/12) x [(28,400 - 3900) / 5]
1/4 x (24,500/5) = $1225
To learn more about straight line depreciation, please check: brainly.com/question/6982430
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Answer:
-2
Explanation:
Good X and Y are related goods
When the price of Good X rises by 20 percent the quantity for Good Y falls by 40 percent
Therefore the cross price elasticity can be calculated as follows
= -40/20
= -2
Hence the cross price elasticity is -2
Answer:
$68 appears as the amount unearned but received (or still paid in advance) in the closing statement
Explanation:
Amount received in advance = $100
Amount earned = $32
Amount (in advance at closing) is the difference between the amount originally paid in advance and the amount earned
Amount (in advance at closing) = $100 - $32
= $68
The amount that will appear in the closing statement as rental payment still in advance is $68.
