Answer:
The time line from minting to the first sale is:
0-192
$15 - $430,000
we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:
FV = PV(1 + r)t
Solving for r :
r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1
r = ($430,000/$15)1/192 - 1
r = .0549, or 5.49%
The time line from the first sale to the second sale is:
0-35
$430,000 - $4,582,500
we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Using the FV formula, that is:
FV = PV(1 + r)t
Solving for r:
r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1
r = ($4,582,500/$430,000)1/35 - 1
r = .0699, or 6.99%
The time line from minting to the second sale is:
0-227
$15 - $4,582,500
we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:
FV = PV(1 + r)t
Solving for r, we get:
r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1
r = ($4,582,500/$15)1/227 - 1
r = .0572, or 5.72%
The filter that allows that effect is the stylize filter.
Answer:
The correct answer is c. Marginal analysis
Explanation:
Marginal analysis is a technique you can apply when you are comparing some options. We can say this analysis is an examination of the additional benefits of an activity compared to the additional costs incurred by that same activity. Using this technique you can maximize the potential profits.
The additional cost versus the additional benefit of a decision. In this case, Bill and Alma are analyzing if living 10 miles closer to their workplaces ( benefit) is worth the extra $25,000 in the cost of the house(cost). This is marginal analysis.
Answer:
Using the current capital structure
Ke = Rf + β(Risk premium)
Ke = 5 + 1.60(6)
Ke = 5 + 9.60
Ke = 14.60
Weighted cost of equity
= 14.60(20/100)
= 2.92%
Using the new debt-equity ratio
Ke = 5 + 1.60(6)
Ke = 5 + 9.6
Ke = 14.60%
Weighted cost of equity
Ke = 14.60(60/100)
Ke = 8.76%
Difference in cost of equity
= 2.92% - 8.76%
= -5.8%
Explanation:
There is need to calculate the cost of equity based on capital asset pricing model where Rf represents risk-free rate, Rp denotes risk-premium and β refers to beta. Then, we will calculate the weighted cost of equity by multiplying cost of equity by the proportion of equity in the capital structure. We will also calculate the new weighted cost of equity by multiplying the cost of equity the new proportion of equity in the capital structure. Finally, we will deduct the new weighted cost of equity from the old weighted cost of equity.
Answer:
the European Central Bank (ECB) should engage in a contractionary monetary policy
Explanation:
A contractionary monetary policy takes place when a central bank (or the Fed) reduces the money supply in order to cool down the economy, lower inflation rate or like in this case, wants to offset expansionary fiscal policy.
The central bank initially raises the interest rates and starts selling more securities in order to absorb cash from the markets.