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Vlada [557]
3 years ago
7

The primary difference between the accrual basis and the cash basis of accounting is: (You may select more than one answer. Sing

le click the box with the question mark to produce a check mark for a correct answer and double click the box with the question mark to empty the box for a wrong answer. Any boxes left with a question mark will be automatically graded as incorrect.)
a. The accrual basis records revenues when services or products are delivered and records expenses when cash is paid
b The accrual basis records revenues when services or products are delivered and records expenses when incurred.
c. The cash basis records revenues when services or products are delivered and records expenses when paid
d. The cash bases records revenues when cash is received and records expenses when cash is paid
Business
1 answer:
sashaice [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

b The accrual basis records revenues when services or products are delivered and records expenses when incurred; AND -

d. The cash bases records revenues when cash is received and records expenses when cash is paid

Explanation:

Accrual basis of accounting states that transactions are recorded based on when they are entered into, irrespective of the cash exchange done or not. Revenues are recognised when buyer's liability to pay has been established, expenses are recorded when our liability to pay has been established. Debtors & Creditors, outstanding & prepaid expenses, accrued & prepaid income are all implications of this basis.

Cash basis of Accounting states that transactions are recorded based on when cash exchange has occurred. 'Liability to pay' or 'obligation to receive' have no relevance in this, it is only evaluated on the basis of cash transactions. 4 implications given in accrual basis are also inapplicable here.

Accrual basis is the more generally accepted one than cash basis, as it gives a true picture of enterprise performance in an accounting period.

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Strike441 [17]

Answer:

The time line from minting to the first sale is:

0-192

$15 - $430,000

we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:

FV = PV(1 + r)t

Solving for r :

r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1

r = ($430,000/$15)1/192 - 1

r = .0549, or 5.49%

The time line from the first sale to the second sale is:

0-35

$430,000 - $4,582,500

we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Using the FV formula, that is:

FV = PV(1 + r)t

Solving for r:

r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1

r = ($4,582,500/$430,000)1/35 - 1

r = .0699, or 6.99%

The time line from minting to the second sale is:

0-227

$15 - $4,582,500

we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:

FV = PV(1 + r)t

Solving for r, we get:

r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1

r = ($4,582,500/$15)1/227 - 1

r = .0572, or 5.72%

6 0
3 years ago
Which filter allows you to impart a stamping or raising effect in an image?
SSSSS [86.1K]
The filter that allows that effect is the stylize filter.
6 0
3 years ago
Bill and Alma are shopping for their first home. They have found two houses that are nearly identical except for their locations
Verizon [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is c. Marginal analysis

Explanation:

Marginal analysis is a technique you can apply when you are comparing some options.  We can say this analysis is an examination of the additional benefits of an activity compared to the additional costs incurred by that same activity. Using this technique you can maximize the potential profits.

The additional cost versus the additional benefit of a decision. In this case,  Bill and Alma are analyzing if  living 10 miles closer to their workplaces ( benefit) is worth the extra $25,000 in the cost of the house(cost). This is marginal analysis.

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3 years ago
Serendipity Inc. is re-evaluating its debt level. Its current capital structure consists of 80% debt and 20% common equity, its
Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

Using the current capital structure

Ke = Rf + β(Risk premium)

Ke = 5 + 1.60(6)

Ke = 5 + 9.60

Ke = 14.60

Weighted cost of equity

= 14.60(20/100)

= 2.92%

Using the new debt-equity ratio

Ke = 5 + 1.60(6)

Ke = 5 +  9.6

Ke  = 14.60%

Weighted cost of equity

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Difference in cost of equity

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= -5.8%

Explanation:

There is need to calculate the cost of equity based on capital asset pricing model where Rf  represents risk-free rate, Rp denotes risk-premium and β refers to beta. Then, we will calculate the weighted cost of equity by multiplying cost of equity by the proportion of equity in the capital structure. We will also calculate the new weighted cost of equity by multiplying the cost of equity the new proportion of equity in the capital structure. Finally, we will deduct the new weighted cost of equity from the old weighted cost of equity.  

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose the European Central Bank (ECB) decides to use monetary policy to offset the possible inflationary effects of European e
Grace [21]

Answer:

the European Central Bank (ECB) should engage in a contractionary monetary policy

Explanation:

A contractionary monetary policy takes place when a central bank (or the Fed) reduces the money supply in order to cool down the economy, lower inflation rate or like in this case, wants to offset expansionary fiscal policy.

The central bank initially raises the interest rates and starts selling more securities in order to absorb cash from the markets.

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3 years ago
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