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lina2011 [118]
3 years ago
7

Why should a firm stop producing when its marginal revenue is less than its average variable cost?

Business
1 answer:
Sholpan [36]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

There is no profit so they would be loosing money.

Explanation:

You might be interested in
The Fed offers three types of discount window loans. ________ credit is offered to small institutions with demonstrable patterns
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

The answer options to this question are as follows:

to. Seasonal; extended; adjustment

b. Extended; adjustment; seasonal

c. Adjustment; extended; seasonal

d. Seasonal; primary; secondary

and. Adjustment; seasonal; extended

The correct answer is d. Seasonal; primary; secondary.

Explanation:

Seasonal credit is a freely available credit. Seasonality is a concept frequently used in the economic study. It assumes that a large part of the economic variables experience regular fluctuations or changes over time, which makes them predictable and facilitates their temporal study.

The fact that the aforementioned regular variations occur makes many aspects of the present day to be expected. That is, patterns of behavior are often formed in historical series that can be classified in periods of time and that show the evolution of some economic aspect, such as the demand for goods or services, supply, consumption, employment data. , prices, among others.

Primary credit, also known as net internal credit, refers to the financing that the Central Bank provides to residents in the country less the liabilities that it has in favor of these. It is obtained from the difference between the amount of the monetary base and that of net international assets.

Whereas sequential credit is issued on the basis of other credit, for example, a back to back credit.

5 0
3 years ago
Waterway has a standard of 2 hours of labor per unit, at $12 per hour. In producing 3800 units, Waterway used 7350 hours of labo
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $3,000 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard= 2 hours of labor per unit, at $12 per hour.

In producing 3800 units, Waterway used 7350 hours of labor.

<u>To calculate the direct labor quantity variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

Standard quantity= 2*3,800= 7,600 hours

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (7,600 - 7,350)*12

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $3,000 favorable

7 0
3 years ago
As the contestant with the longest winning streak in the history of Jeopardy, Ken Jennings won more than $2.5 million. Suppose h
aleksandrvk [35]

Answer:

Total amount = $10906400

He would receive = $ 45443.33 every month

Explanation:

Ken invested $1.6 million at 9.6% for 20 yes compounded monthly.

n = 20*12= 140

t = 20

P= 1600000

R= 9.6% = 0.096

Amount A is equal to

A = p(1+r/n)^(nt)

A =

1600000(1+(0.096/140))^ (140*20)

A =

1600000(1 + (6.857*10^-4))^(2800)

A= 1600000(1.0006857)^2800

A = 1600000*6.8165

A = 10906400

Every month, he will get

10906400/(12*20)

= 10906400/240

=$ 45443.333

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Alfonso has noticed that increases in unemployment insurance claims are associated with recessions, and therefore be advocates l
7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

<em>c. The reasoning of both Alfons and Mary suffers from the omitted variable problem</em>

Explanation:

The issue of omitted variables occurs as a result of mis-specification of a linear regression model, which could be either because the impact of the omitted variable on both the dependent variable is unclear, or the evidence was not accessible.

This causes you to omit the variable from your regression, resulting in over-estimation (upward bias) or underestimation (downward) of the influence of one of the other predictor variables.

3 0
3 years ago
The current price of a non-dividend-paying stock is $40. Over the next year it is expected to rise to $42 or fall to $37. An inv
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

D. $0.93

Explanation:

Upmove (U) = High price/current price

                    = 42/40

                    = 1.05

Down move (D) = Low price/current price

                          = 37/40

                          = 0.925

Risk neutral probability for up move

q = (e^(risk free rate*time)-D)/(U-D)

  = (e^(0.02*1)-0.925)/(1.05-0.925)

  = 0.76161

Put option payoff at high price (payoff H)

= Max(Strike price-High price,0)

= Max(41-42,0)

= Max(-1,0)

= 0

Put option payoff at low price (Payoff L)

= Max(Strike price-low price,0)

= Max(41-37,0)

= Max(4,0)

= 4

Price of Put option = e^(-r*t)*(q*Payoff H+(1-q)*Payoff L)

                               = e^(-0.02*1)*(0.761611*0+(1-0.761611)*4)

                               = 0.93

Therefore, The  value of each option using a one-period binomial model is 0.93

8 0
3 years ago
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