Answer:
(a) Annual dividend = Dividend rate × par value × number of shares outstanding
= 7% × $60 × 40,000
= $168,000
Semi‑annual dividend = 
= 
= $84,000
(b) Annual dividend = Dividend rate × number of shares outstanding
= $5.20 × 171,600
= $892,320
Arrears of $892,320 are owed for last year as well, so the total dividends owed would be:
$892,320 × 2 years
= $1,784,640
(c) Annual dividend = Dividend rate × stated value × number of shares outstanding
= 4.8% × $100 × 445,000
= $2,136,000
Quarterly dividend = =
= 
= $534,000
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": $77 million; $8 million.
Explanation:
The U.S. Federal Reserve (Fed) establishes a minimum amount of money banks must have in front of unexpected demand. That minimum is called Bank Reserve. <em>The current bank reserve set by the Fed is 10% of the bank's demand and checking deposits.
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Excess reserves <em>is the amount of money banks have on top of the bank reserve</em> that cannot loan. As banks do not profit in interest with that amount of money, they do not tend to have much excess reserves.
In the case:
- Bank required reserve = $770,000,000 x 10%
- Bank required reserve = $77,000,000 = $77 million
- Excess reserve = $85,000,000 - $77,000,000
- Excess reserve = $8 million
Answer:
U.S. banks that cannot borrow elsewhere.
Explanation:
In the United States, the Federal Reserve goes about as the lender of last resort to institutions that don't have some other methods for acquiring, and whose inability to get credit would drastically influence the economy.
Vanilla approach to ERP implementation is when one change business processes in order to implement SAP.
<h3>What is Vanilla ERP implementation?</h3>
Vanilla ERP implementation serves as the implementation of standard software modules for core business processes.
This usually help toprovide breadth of integration and depth of functionality across the business.
Learn more about Vanilla ERP implementation at;
brainly.com/question/24864915
Answer:
The answer is: C) PV of a perpetuity = StartFraction r Over Upper C EndFraction (I guess this means PV = r / C, which is FALSE)
Explanation:
The formula for calculating the present value of a perpetuity is:
PV = C / r
Where PV = Present Value, C = cash flow, r = discount rate.
A perpetuity is a stream of equal cash flows that lasts forever (perpetually).
The formula for calculating the present value of a perpetuity is simple, so there is no reason to spend time calculating the present value of each cash flow, since there are infinite cash flows.
A consol bond s a type of perpetuity issued by the British government (also by the US government)
