Answer:
$11.08 to the nearest penny
Step-by-step explanation:
So I do it like
10.26 is 100 percent
We’re adding 8 percent so technically multiplying by 108
SO 10.26*108 is 11.08 to the nearest penny
It so much easier, easy 1 step
A 5 is best predicted number
9514 1404 393
Answer:
500 ft or 166 2/3 yards
Step-by-step explanation:
The tie wire is (100)/(100 +500) = 1/6 of the total length of wire used. If 1000 yards of wire is used, 1/6 of that amount can be expected to be tie wire. That is ...
(1000 yd)/6 = 166 2/3 yd = 500 ft
Least 8.334
67/8
8.38
Greatest 8 4/9
Give me brainliest please :))
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
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