During the period 800 BCE to 1500 BCE, following the fall of the Roman Empire, Europe seemed to experience a dramatic decline in
its cultural growth and development. Meanwhile, life in other parts of the world was no so “Medieval”—those cultures made tremendous advances in science, art, exploration, and scholarship. What caused this difference between Europe and Africa, Asia, and the Middle East during the Middle Ages? Why do you think other parts of the world experienced “golden ages” during a time when most Europeans struggled through the Dark Ages?
Explain your answer in a thoughtful discussion post, including your reasons for thinking as you do. Then, read some of your classmates' answers and respond to their ideas.
The main difference is the presence of knowledge which made Africa, Asia, and the Middle East more developed and modern during the Middle Ages as compared to Europe because in Europe no importance was given to the knowledge by the people which leads to the development of other nations as compared to dark age of the Europe. Other parts of the world experienced “golden ages” during a time when most of the Europe struggled through the Dark Ages because of knowledge which enables other nations to made better their lives.
It would be "C. Akbar" who was known <span>as the “Great One,” and added more territory to the lands conquered by Babur than did any other Mughal emperor--due mostly to his superior military prowess. </span>
