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3 years ago

When cleaning a minor wound with gauze, which method should be used?

1 answer:

8 0

The answer is "<span>A circular motion from the center of the wound out to the outer edge".
</span>
Any wound or injury is a break in the surface of the skin, bringing about a potential for bacterial tainting. Legitimate injury purging can enhance wound healing while at the same time evacuating debris and dry release, keeping dressing buildups from backing off the recuperating of the wound.Gauze swabs and cotton fleece can be utilized for cleaning, however ought not be left in delayed contact with a healing wound. This is on account of they can shed filaments and cling to the recuperating wound surface, making further harm the injury upon evacuation.

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Live Easy, Inc., specializes in dietary supplements that address the specific needs of women over the age of sixty, such as bone

4vir4ik [10]

Answer:

Focused differentiation.

Explanation:

This strategy usually focuses on narrow segments which tends to achieve either an advantageous cost or differentiation.

Differentiation is also said to involves making your products or services different from and more attractive than those of your competitors. How you do this depends on the exact nature of your industry and of the products and services themselves, but will typically involve features, functionality, durability, support, and also brand image that your customers value.

3 0

3 years ago

Mullineaux Corporation has a target capital structure of 46 percent common stock, 5 percent preferred stock, and the balance in

Gre4nikov [31]

Answer:

WACC = 9.18%

Explanation:

given data

common stock = 46 percent

preferred stock = 5 percent

cost of equity = 15.8 percent

cost of preferred stock = 8.3 percent

pre-tax cost of debt = 6.8 percent

tax rate = 23 percent

solution

first we get here after tax cost of debt that is express as

after tax cost of debt = pretax cost of debt × (1 - relevant tax rate) ...........1

put here value and we get

after tax cost of debt = 6.8% × (1 - 0.23)

after tax cost of debt = 0.05236

after tax cost of debt = 5.24 %

and

now for WACC

WACC = respective weight × respective cost

WACC = ( common stock × cost of equity ) + ( preferred stock × pre tax) + (weight of debt × After tax cost of debt) .....................2

we take here weight of debt is 30 percent

so put here value

WACC = 46% × 15.8% + 5% × 6.8% + 30% × 5.24 %

WACC = 0.0918

WACC = 9.18%

3 0

3 years ago

You are offered a chance to buy an asset for $5,250 that is expected to produce cash flows of $750 at the end of Year 1, $1,000

jeyben [28]

The rate of return I would earn if you bought the asset is 16.91.

<h3>What is the internal rate of return?</h3>

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested. It is a capital budgeting method.

IRR can be calculated with a financial calculator

Cash flow in year 0 = $-5250
Cash flow in year 1 = $750
Cash flow in year 2 = $1000
Cash flow in year 3 = $850
Cash flow in year 4 = $6250

IRR = 16.91%

To learn more about the internal rate of return, please check: brainly.com/question/24172627

8 0

3 years ago

Beachballs, Inc., expects abnormally high earnings for the next three years due to the forecast of unusually hot summers. After

NNADVOKAT [17]

Answer: $36.50

Explanation:

The price she will be willing to be paid according to the Dividend Discount model is calculated by finding the present value of the future dividends and the terminal value.

Dividend year 1 = 1 * (1 + 20%) = $1.20

Dividend year 2 = 1.20 * (1 + 20%) = $1.44

Dividend year 3 = 1.44 * (1 + 15%) = $1.656

Terminal value = Dividend in year 4 / (required return - growth rate)

= (1.656 * (1 + 6%)) / ( 10% - 6%)

= $43.884

$Price = \frac{1.2}{(1 + 0.10)} + \frac{1.44}{(1 + 0.10)^{2} } + \frac{1.656}{(1 + 0.10)^{3} } + \frac{43.884}{(1 + 0.10)^{3} }\\\\= 36.4959\\\\= 36.50$

= $36.50

6 0

3 years ago

Division A of Chacha Company has sales of $140,000, cost of goods sold of $83,000, operating expenses of $43,000, and invested a

KiRa [710]

Answer:

d. 0.93

Explanation:

Investment turnover is a measurement of how a company is able to generate revenue as a result of using the money invested in the company.

Investment turnover is computed by

= Net sales ÷ Invested assets

Given that;

Sales = $140,000

Invested assets = $150,000

Investment turnover = $140,000 ÷ $150,000

Investment turnover = 0.93

Therefore, investment turnover for Division A is 0.93

6 0

3 years ago