Answer:
The right answer is $50,000
Explanation:
Simply put, adjusted basis is the cost of an object after factors that affects the cost has being considered. These factors usually include taxes, depreciation value and any other cost incurred in getting and retaining the said object. Adjusted basis is important so as to know the right amount to sell.
Adjusted basis increases when an individual factors the cost incurred from taxes and maintenance ad it reduces when he/she factors in depreciation.
In the case of Koch, he already exchanged his machine for another at $50,000, as far as he is concerned at that moment, the adjusted basis is $50,000 because it was exchanged in a fair market.
Answer:
To pay in taxes, to purchase goods to make things if the business is a factory etc. hope this helps
Explanation:
The expectation of the Tatum Manufacturing firm from the Hong Kong government is to <u>ensure fair competition </u>with its competitors.
<h3>What is a manufacturing firm?</h3>
A manufacturing firm is a firm that engages in massive scale production of goods and commodities that uses physical labor and/or machinery to turn raw materials and parts, into finished goods or completed items.
The finished goods could be sold:
- To other manufacturers for the fabrication of more sophisticated products,
- To wholesalers that redistribute the goods to retail traders, or
- To final consumers directly.
The role of the Hong Kong government to Tatum Manufacturing Firm in as much they comply with the government regulations and taxes is for the government to ensure that there is fair competition for Tatum Firm with its competitors.
Learn more about a manufacturing firm here:
brainly.com/question/24519299
Answer:
$5,000 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total variable overhead variance is given below:
= Budgeted machine hours allowed for actual output × Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour - Actual total variable overhead
= 32,000 hours × $2.50 - $75,000
= $80,000 - $75,000
= $5,000 favorable
Since the favorable is more than the actual so it should be favorable
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is given below:
For Bank A,
Effective annual rate is
= (1 + 0.10 ÷ 12)^12 - 1
= 10.47%
For Bank B,
Effective annual rate is
= (1 + 0.11 ÷ 4)^4 - 1
= 11.46%
And,
For Bank C,
Effective annual rate = 12%
Therefore, Bank A is best to borrow at lowest effective annual rate
