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svp [43]
3 years ago
6

If you can solve all parts I will give brainliest (also give strategy)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alexxx [7]3 years ago
4 0

The Halloween conical hat, with given height, circular base and brim

extension has the following calculated parameters;

Part a. The slant height is <u>18.2 inches</u>

Part b. The volume of the cone is 37\frac{1}{2}  \cdot \pi in.³

Part c. The area of the brim, <em>A</em> = <u>36·π in.²</u>

Part d. The area of the brim is found by <u>subtracting the area of the base of the cone from the area covered by the perimeter of the brim</u>

Reasons:

Known parameters;

Height of the conical portion, h = 18 inches

Base circumference, C = 5·π inches

Part a. Slant height of the conical portion; Required

Solution:

The circumference of a circle, C = 2·π·r

Therefore;

r = \dfrac{C}{2 \cdot \pi}

Which gives;

r = \dfrac{5 \cdot \pi}{2 \cdot \pi} = \dfrac{5}{2} = 2.5

Radius, r = 2.5 inches

According to Pythagoras's theorem, we have; s² = r² + h²

Where;

s = The slant height of the cone

s² = 2.5² + 18² = 330.25

s = √(330.25) ≈ 18.2

  • The slant height, <em>s</em> ≈ <u>18.2 inches</u>

Part b. The measure in cubic inches of candy that exactly fills the conical portion of the hat is the volume of the cone.

Volume \ of \ a \ cone = \dfrac{1}{3} \cdot \pi \cdot r^2 \cdot h

Therefore;

V = \dfrac{1}{3} \times \pi \times 2.5^2 \times  18 = 37\frac{1}{2}  \cdot \pi

  • The volume of the cone, V = 37\frac{1}{2}·π in.³

Part c. The extension of the brim from the base of the cone = 4 inches

The radius of the brim, R = Radius of the base of the cone + 4 inches

∴ <em>R</em> = 2.5 inches + 4 inches = 6.5 inches

Area of the brim, <em>A</em> = Area of the 6.5 inch circle - Area of the circular base of the cone

∴ A = π × 6.5² - π × 2.5² = 36·π

  • The area of the brim, <em>A</em> = <u>36·π in.²</u>

Part d. The procedure for solving the question in part c, is described as follows;

  • The area of the brim can be found by finding the entire area of the circle formed by the perimeter of the brim, then subtracting the area of the base of the cone from that area.

Learn more here:

brainly.com/question/17023854

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A bag contains 40 marbles. The probability of selecting a red marble at random is 1/5. How many red marbles are in the bag?
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Answer:

8 red marbles.

Step-by-step explanation:

All together we have 40 marbles. The fraction of marbles that are red is 1/5 which means that we should divide the total number of marbles, which is 40 by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) 5 so that we get the number of groups that have 1 red marble in them. In this case we have 8 groups.

40/5=8

You always divide by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) first and then you multiply your answer by the numerator ( Top number of fraction ) .

If each group has 1 red marble in it and we have 8 groups, it means that we have 8 red marbles in the bag.

1 * 8 = 8 red marbles in the bag

If the numerator (number above the fraction line) was more than one, then this would mean that we have more than 1 marble in each group of marbles.

Example:

If we had 3/5 we would have 3 marbles in each group of marbles. This means that instead of doing 1 * 8 we would have to do 3 * 8 = 24. We would have 24 red marbles in the bag.

Easy and quick way if you do not need the explanation:

Another way we could do this is by simply multiplying the fraction ( 1/5 ) by the total number of marbles ( 40 ). This would still give us an answer of 8 red marbles in the bag. 40/5=8, 8*1=8

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