3x+1=1 because it is a hard problem to solve just ask your teacher
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's use the definition of the Laplace transform and the identity given:
with
.
Now,
. Using integration by parts with u=e^(-st) and dv=cos(5t), we obtain that
.
Using integration by parts again with u=e^(-st) and dv=sin(5t), we obtain that
.
Solving for F(s) on the last equation,
, then the Laplace transform we were searching is
Answer:
0
Step-by-step explanation:
is it helpful or not,?
A&d i think.. but basically the equation needs to be modeled where the answer will be a 14° difference