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Margaret [11]
3 years ago
11

CAN ANYBODY HELP ME OUT

Mathematics
1 answer:
bija089 [108]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Correct option is

b. If two sides and one included angle are equal in triangles PQS and PRS, then their corresponding sides are also equal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we are given the line RQ, which is divided in two equal parts by a line PS which is perpendicular to RQ.

The foot S of PS is on the line RQ.

First of all, let us do a construction here.

Join the point R with P and P with Q.

Please refer to the attached image.

Now, let us consider the triangles  PQS and PRS:

  • Side QS = RS (as given)
  • \angle PSR = \angle PSQ = 90^\circ
  • Side PS = PS (Common side in both the triangles)

Now, Two sides and the angle included between the two triangles are equal.

So by SAS congruence we can say that \triangle PRS \cong \triangle PQS

Therefore, the corresponding sides will also be equal.

RP = QP

RP is the distance between R and P.

QP is the distance between Q and P.

Hence, to prove that P is equidistant from R and Q, we have proved that:

b. If two sides and one included angle are equal in triangles PQS and PRS, then their corresponding sides are also equal.

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