Answer:
B. 1/56
Explanation:
There are 8 different marbles. In the first draw, you have a one out of 8 chance of getting the red. In the second draw, there are 7 marbles remaining, so a one out of 7 chance of drawing a white marble. To find the total probability of drawing the red and then white marble, we multiply the probabilities if each draw.
(1/8)*(1/7)=1/56
Your answer would be 3=x or 5=x
Hope this helps!
Have a nice day!
Answer:
(A) Is right
Step-by-step explanation:
put X= -2. in y = X+3
to get y 's value
Y = -2+3
= 1
therefore, your solution is ( -2,1)
Answer:
11. should be A 12 is good 14 is C
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
LK = 1
MKN = MK + KN
MK = LK
KN = LK
MK = 1
KN = 1
1 + 1 = 2
MKN = 2
