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2 years ago

If the price of a particular chocolate bar is increased by 40%, and it used to be $2, what is the new price after the increase?

Mathematics

2 answers:

horrorfan [7]2 years ago

6 0

Answer 2.00 × 0.40 = $2.80

Anna71 [15]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2+4=6

20%+40%=60%

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Emily begin piano practice at 3:25 she finished at 5:00 how long did she practice

S_A_V [24]

Answer: 1 hour 35 minutes

assuming both times were p.m. or a.m. and not one of each

Step-by-step explanation:

60 minutes in an hour.

3 hours 25 minutes = 205 minutes

5 hours = 300 minutes

300-205 = 95 minutes

95 minutes = 1 hour (60 minutes) and 35 minutes

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3 years ago

If Colorado Springs, Colorado, has 1.6 times more days of sunshine than Boston, Massachusetts, how many days of sunshine does ea

Kay [80]

C = 1.6b
c + b = 442

1.6b + b = 442
2.6b = 442
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4 years ago

Need help with this

stira [4]

Answer: 5,356 is the right asnwer

Step-by-step explanation: I did the paper hope this helps :)

6 0

3 years ago

Please answer this correctly

My name is Ann [436]

Description:

As we that that 3 of the students voted for counting .

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<em><u>Hope this helps.</u></em>

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th

butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

The variance = 999,000

The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

= 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean = $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

= $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

= 1000

Variance = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

= $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

= 999,000

The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

$\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

= $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000 times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

= $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0

3 years ago