I believe this is true.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Following are the solution to the given points:
Explanation:
For point a:
After-tax profit for each country.
For Country X:
![Tax \ [ 2,500,000 \times 20\% \ ] \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 500,000\\\\ After-tax\ \ profit\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 2,000,000](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Tax%20%5C%20%5B%202%2C500%2C000%20%5Ctimes%2020%5C%25%20%5C%20%5D%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20500%2C000%5C%5C%5C%5C%20After-tax%5C%20%5C%20profit%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%202%2C000%2C000)
For Country Y:
![Pre-tax\ \ Profit \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 2,200,000\\\\Tax\ [40,00,000 \times 10\%] \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 400,000 \\\\After-tax\ \ profit \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 1,800,000](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Pre-tax%5C%20%5C%20Profit%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%202%2C200%2C000%5C%5C%5C%5CTax%5C%20%20%5B40%2C00%2C000%20%5Ctimes%2010%5C%25%5D%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%20400%2C000%20%5C%5C%5C%5CAfter-tax%5C%20%5C%20profit%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%5C%20%201%2C800%2C000)
For point b:
For Country X:
Lardo is expected to establish its new plant in Country X, because Country X's after tax income is higher than Country y's after-tax income [$1,800,000].
A socially constructed category made up of people who share biologically transmitted traits
Answer:
The question is too short. Add more details in order to get answer.
Explanation:
Answer: Zero
Explanation:
The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.
An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.
