1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Arte-miy333 [17]
2 years ago
13

If you apply the changes below to the absolute value parent function, f(x) = [X1,

Mathematics
1 answer:
elixir [45]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

I think the ans is D.

Thank you for the points.

plz mark me brainlist

You might be interested in
Which of the following is equivalent to<br> 36^-1/2
guapka [62]

Step-by-step explanation:

{36}^{ -  \frac{1}{2} }  \\  \\  =  \frac{1}{ {36}^{  \frac{1}{2} } }  \\  \\  =   \frac{1}{ {( {6)}}^{  2 \times \frac{1}{2} } }  \\  \\  =  \frac{1}{ {{6}}}

3 0
3 years ago
Find the geometric mean of 24 and 32
Maru [420]

Answer:

27√39

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the geometric mean we need to first of all multiply 24 and 32 and take the square root of it (i.e. 24*32 is 768, √768 is 27.712.....). However, in this case, we need to represent the answer in a simplified surd. To do this we need to find the highest possible perfect square that is below 768. Here it is 27 because 27*27 equals 729. Now we can go ahead and subtract 768 by 729. We get 39. So now we got two different surds. √729 and √39. We can simplify the √729 to 27. Thus our answer is the combination of both 27*√39 or 27√39.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a candy box, there are 5 times as many candies with nuts as candies without nuts. There are 18 candies in the box. How many c
vazorg [7]
90 because there are 5 time as many candies with nuts as candies without nuts and there is 18 so it will be 18×5=90
8 0
3 years ago
When you are determining the probability of an event, why must the probability be between 0 and 1? Explain your answer.
Airida [17]

Answer:

The probability of an event will not be less than 0. This is because 0 is impossible (sure that something will not happen). The probability of an event will not be more than 1. This is because 1 is certain that something will happen.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope dis helps ^-^

5 0
3 years ago
How many nickels have the same value as a half dollar.?
Advocard [28]
A nickel has the monetary worth of $0.05
A half-dollar has the monetary worth of $0.50

0.50/0.05 = 10

you will need 10 nickels to have the same monetary worth as a half dollar


hope this helps
8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • For his long distance phone service, Brian pays a $5 monthly fee plus 9 cents per minute. Last month, Brian's long distance bill
    13·2 answers
  • Rob collects data about how many customers
    10·2 answers
  • How you find the radius of a circle
    14·2 answers
  • Fill in values for a, b and c so that the answer to this equation is x = 4.<br>a(bx+3)=c​
    14·1 answer
  • Which is a factor of 6x^3y+6xy-12x^2-12
    7·1 answer
  • In 2003, there were about 5.8078 X 10^8 people using the Internet in the world and about 1.6575 X 10^8 of these people were in t
    13·1 answer
  • 27x52 distributive property
    10·1 answer
  • What is the solution of log(4-3) = log(17-41)?<br> O4<br> O 5<br> O 15<br> O 20
    9·2 answers
  • Solve this equation for x. Round your answer to the nearest hundredth. 0.77 = log x​
    10·1 answer
  • Can anyone help me out on this not too sure on this
    11·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!