1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
DIA [1.3K]
3 years ago
7

Was Neville Chamberlain responsible for the rise of Adolf Hitler?

History
1 answer:
34kurt3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes he was.

Explanation:

Neville Chamberlain was best known for his foreign policy of appeasement, and in particular for his signing of the Munich Agreement on 30 September 1938, ceding the German-speaking Sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia to Germany. By doing this it gave Hitler gin more popularity ad prove that he could return Germany to it's former glory. This also told Germany that they could o whatever they wanted since the many countries wanted to avoid war.

You might be interested in
How were the Santa Fe and Butterfield Overland Trails similar?
lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

D. (Both trails were created after railroads spread West.)

Hope this helps :)

Mark me BRAINLEST please.... :3

3 0
3 years ago
The seat of the Spanish colonial government of Texas was at the settlement that became the city of _____.
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

San Antonio if I am not wrong.

7 0
3 years ago
What provides educational opportunities for the youngest disadvantaged Americans
Andrei [34K]
Equity of opportunity/ Educational Equity.
7 0
3 years ago
"...Congress was hearing testimony concerning NAFTA. If this agreement is signed as it is currently drafted, the next thing you
aleksandr82 [10.1K]
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "loss of jobs to Mexico that he predicted NAFTA would cause." According to Ross Perot, the "giant sucking sound" is the <span>loss of jobs to Mexico that he predicted NAFTA would cause</span>
6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What were Thomas Hobbes feelings about man
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

Hobbes believed that in man's natural state, moral ideas do not exist. Thus, in speaking of human nature, he defines good simply as that which people desire and evil as that which they avoid, at least in the state of nature.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • (02.07 MC) The best word to describe a Samurai is
    5·1 answer
  • Help please
    15·1 answer
  • Put an H next to the items that describe Human Systems
    5·1 answer
  • A picture made from colored bits of stone and glass
    8·2 answers
  • Who controlled south korea following world war 2
    6·1 answer
  • Choose all that apply. Imperialism needed two things to work. They were: trade people land money
    15·1 answer
  • What attribute allowed for trade to thrive in all three Muslim empires?
    6·2 answers
  • Which of the following is NOT part of the U.S. Constitution's preamble?
    6·1 answer
  • VOTE Which amendment granted women the right to vote in 1920? B. 19th Amendment A. 15th Amendment D. 26th Amendment C. 23rd Amen
    8·2 answers
  • What does the cartoon reveal about the limitations of states’ power?
    13·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!