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sineoko [7]
3 years ago
5

An investor can design a risky portfolio based on two stocks, A and B. Stock A has an expected return of 16% and a standard devi

ation of return of 18.0%. Stock B has an expected return of 12% and a standard deviation of return of 3%. The correlation coefficient between the returns of A and B is 0.50. The risk-free rate of return is 10%. The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is
Business
1 answer:
ElenaW [278]3 years ago
6 0

The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.

Using this formula

Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(Wa-RFR )×SDB²]-[(Wb-RFR)×SDA×SDB×CC] ÷ [(Wa-RFR )×SDB²+(Wb-RFR)SDA²]- [(Wa-RFR +Wb-RFR )×SDA×SDB×CC]

Where:

Stock A Expected Return  (Wa) =16%

Stock A Standard Deviation (SDA)= 18.0%

Stock B Expected Return  (Wb)= 12%

Stock B Standard Deviation(SDB) = 3%  

Correlation Coefficient for Stock A and B (CC) = 0.50  

Risk Free rate of return(RFR) = 10%

Let plug in the formula

Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(.16-.10)×.03²]-[(.12-.10)×.18×.03×0.50]÷ [(.16-.10 )×.03²+(.12-.10)×.18²]- [(.16-.10 +.12-.10 )×.18×.03×0.50]

Stock A optimal risky portfolio=(0.000054-0.000054)÷(0.000702-0.000216)

Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0÷0.000486×100%

Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0%

Inconclusion the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.

Learn more here:

brainly.com/question/21273560

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QveST [7]
False should be the answer
8 0
3 years ago
A manager doing performance appraisals gives more weight to recent employee behaviors than to behaviors of 6 or 9 months earlier
stiv31 [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": availability.

Explanation:

Availability bias or availability heuristic refers to individuals tending to relate the easiest judgment they can recall about a certain matter as its most suitable metric and even a metric that could predict future behavior on that topic. This happens because those people make assumptions based on what they can remember of that matter which might not be necessarily the most accurate input about it.

Therefore,<em> if a manager is measuring performance only placing focus on employees' recent and not past behavior, the manager is implementing availability bias.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Tulip Corporation purchased equipment for $ 60 comma 000 on January​ 1, 2017. On December​ 31, 2019, the equipment was sold for
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

The sell will generate a loss of $6,000.

Explanation:

Please find the below for detailed calculations and explanations:

- The equipment's net value at the time of disposal is equal to: Book value of the equipment - The accumulated depreciation of the equipment = 60,000 - 28,000 = $32,000;

- The gain/(loss) on the disposal of equipment is equal to: Sell price of the equipment - The equipment's net value at the time of disposal = 26,000 - 32,000 = $(6,000)

Thus, Tulip Corporation's disposal of the equipment at Dec 31st 2019 makes a loss of $6,000.

8 0
3 years ago
Laura says that the present value of $700 to be received one year from today if the interest rate is 6 percent is less than the
Andrews [41]

Answer:

The correct answer is A. Both Laura and Cassie are correct.

Explanation:

Since Laura says that the present value of $ 700 to be received one year from today if the interest rate is 6 percent is less than the present value of $ 700 to be received two years from today if the interest rate is 3 percent, and Cassie says that $ 700 saved for one year at 6 percent interest has a smaller future value than $ 700 saved for two years at 3 percent interest, to determine who is right, the following calculations must be performed:

700 x 1.06 = 742

700 x 1.03 ^ 2 = 742.63

Therefore, both Laura and Cassie are correct in their claims.

5 0
3 years ago
Shaan and Anita currently insure their cars with separate companies, paying $650 and $575 a year. If they insure both cars with
icang [17]

Answer:

$1615

Explanation:

($575 + 650) 0.10 = $122.50

Find the future value of $122.50

Future value can be calculated using a financial calculator:

$122.50 = PMT

10 = N

6% = I/Y

Press compute then FV

Fv = $1615

I hope my answer helps you

3 0
3 years ago
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